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5.1.10 Practice Test, Chapter 6 6.7.3 Practice exam, 6.6.10 Practice exam, 6.5.9 Practice exam, 6.4.7 Practice exam, 6.3.8 Practice exam, 6.2.5 Practice exam, 6.1.10 Practice Exam, 6.7 testout, 6.7.3 Practice exam, 5.10.5 Practice Test, 6.1.10 Practi…

Which of the following is a vaild IP (version 4) address? (Select 2)
2.2.2.2
172.16.1.26
Consider the following IP addresses .
Class A, B, B, C
Which three of the following are Class B addresses?
129.0.0.0
190.65.2.0
132.12.0.0
Which of the following IP addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
129.0.0.1
191.168.2.15
168.16.5.1
What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 203.111.3.3?
255.255.255.0
A host on the network has an IP address of 129.11.99.78 using the default subnet mask. How would you identify the address and mask using CIDR notation?
129.11.99.78/16
You manage a subnet that uses the following subnet address: 198.162.1.0/23. Which of the following best describes how addressing is configured for the subnet?
Supernetting.
You manage a server that uses an IP address of 192.168.255.188 with a mask of 255.255.0.0 Which of the following describes the address type?
Classless
Which organization is responsible for allocating public IP addresses?
IANA
Which of the following best describes the purpose of using subnets?
Subnets divide an IP address into multiple addresses.
You’ve decided to use a subnet mask of 255.255.192.0 on the 172.17.0.0 network to create four separate subnets. Which network IDs will be assigned to these subnets in this configuration? (selec two)
172.17/128.0 AND 172.17.0.0
You have a small network connected to the Internet as shown in the Exhibit. You need to configure the default gateway address on Wrk1 so that it can communicate with the hosts on the Internet. Which address would you use for the default gateway address?
The IP address assigned to Fa0/0 on Router 1
You have a small network with a single subnet connected to the Internet as shown in the Exhibit. The router has been assigned the two addresses shown. You need to manually configure the workstation to connect to the network. The workstation should use RouterA as the default gateway, and DNS1 as the DNS server address. From the drop-down lists, select the appropriate paramteres to configure the workstation’s TCP/IP settings.
IP Address: 192.168.12.46
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.12.34
DNS Server: 192.162.1.22
You manage a network with a single switch. On each switch port, a hub connects multiple devices to the switch.
which condition are you most likely to experience on the network ?
collisions
select the statement that best describes a broadcast storm.
A Broadcast storm occurs when there are so many broadcast messages on the network that they approach or exceed the network bandwidth..
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
spanning tree
You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your buildings connect through he single switch . Which feature should you implement?
VLANs
You manage a network that uses multiple switches. You want to provide multiple paths between switches so that if one link goes down, an alternate path is available.
Which feature should your switch support?
spanning tree
You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive doc.

What should you use for this situation?

VLAN
You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches.
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active patch between any two switches?
Spanning tree
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?
spanning trees
A user reports that network access from her workstation is very slow. The problem does not seem to be affecting any other users.
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause?
Duplex mismatch
You manage a local area network with several switches. A new employee has started today so you connect her workstation to a switch port.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

Incorrect VLAN assignment
You manage a network with multiple switches. You find that your switches are experiencing heavy broadcast storms.

Which of the following will help reduce the effects of a broadcast storm?

Enable spanning tree on the switches
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
spanning tree
While viewing the status of the interfaces on a Cisco switch, you see abnormally large of oversized ethernet frames being received on one interface. This interface is connected to a workstation located on the 2nd floor.
What could be causing this to happen?
The workstation’s network board is jabbering
The network board in a workstation is currently configured as follows:
show running-config interface
show interface
Which of the following features dynamically places switch ports in blocking or forwarding states?
Spanning tree
You manage a network that uses multiple switches. You want to provide muliple paths between switches so that if one link goes down, an alternate path is available.
Which feature should your switch support?
Spanning tree
What problem does the Spanning Tree protocol prevent?
Switching loops from developing when redundant paths are implemented between switches.
Which of the following are advantages of using the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in network segmented bridges?
Prevents message loops from forming

Identifies the optimal path between network devices.

Lets you provide redundancy by using more then one connection between devices, making your network more reliable.

Which statements accurately describes port states of both bridges and switches?
Ports in a blocked state still receive BPDUs

In the learning state the MAC address table can be populated, but frames not forwarded.

A switch running STP is a backup bridge. What state is it in?
Blocking
Switches running the STP are in the process of exchanging BPDUs and defining their roles. In what state are the switches?
listening
A switch running STP is in a learning state. A message destined for a different network segment arrives at the switch.
Which of the following best describes what the switch will do?
It uses the source MAC address and network segment information to build its bridge database, but does not forward the message
A switch running STP is in the listening state. A message destined for a different network segment arrives at the switch. Which of the following best describes what the switch will do?
It does not record the address or segment information. It does not forward the message
You have just connected four switches as shown in the Exhibit. 
Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch will become the root bridge?
You have just connected four switches as shown in the Exhibit.
Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch will become the root bridge?
B
You have two switches connected as shown in the Exhibit. You would like to configure rapid spanning tree on switch A. On which ports would you use portfast command?
You have two switches connected as shown in the Exhibit. You would like to configure rapid spanning tree on switch A. On which ports would you use portfast command?
Fa0/1 and Fa0/2
You have just connected four switches as shown in the Exhibit. 
Assuming the default switch configuration, how can your force Switch C to become a root bridge?
You have just connected four switches as shown in the Exhibit.
Assuming the default switch configuration, how can your force Switch C to become a root bridge?
Configure a priority number of 4096 for switch C
You have three switches configured as shown in the Exhibit. 
How can you guarantee that switch C becomes the root bridge?
You have three switches configured as shown in the Exhibit.
How can you guarantee that switch C becomes the root bridge?
Configure switch C with a lower priority value
You need to configure spanning tree on a Cisco switch. You’d like to use a protocol that confirms to the 802.1w standards.
Which protocol should you use?
Rapid PVST+
Match the Etherchannel protocol on the left with its characteristics on the right.
Desirable mode places the port in a negotiating state. Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)

Based on the 802.3ad standard
link Aggregation control protocol(LACP)

Passive mode places the port into a passive negotiation state. link aggregation control protocol (LACP)

Auto mode places the port into a passive negotiating state. Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)

Active more places the port in a negotiating state.
link Aggregation control protocol(LACP)

You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches.
Which feature allows the switches to pass VLAN traffic between the switches?
Trunking
You manage a network with two switches. The switches are connected together through their Gigabit Ethernet uplink ports.
You define VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 on each switch. A device on the first switch in VLAN 1 needs to communicate with a device on the second switch also in VLAN 1.
What should you configure to allow communication between these two devices through the switches?
Trunking
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what type of switch ports are members of all VLANs defined on the switch?
Trunk Ports
Computers A and B are on the same VLAN and are separated by two switches, as shown in the exhibit. Computer A sends a Fram to Computer B. 
Which of the following best describes the composition of the frame as it travels from A to B?
Computers A and B are on the same VLAN and are separated by two switches, as shown in the exhibit. Computer A sends a Fram to Computer B.

Which of the following best describes the composition of the frame as it travels from A to B?

Computer A sends a normal frame. The first switch appends a VLAN ID to the frame. The second switch removes the VLAN ID before forwarding it to Computer B.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a VLAN ID?
Switches append a VLAN ID to the header of each frame to identify the virtual network to which it belongs.
Which of the following are reasons to configure VLAN’s on a switch as opposed to using switches without VLANs?
Increased Security
Increased Number of broadcast domains
Which of the following benefits apply only to creating VLANs with switches and not to segmenting the network with regular switches?
You can create multiple broadcast domains
you have two switches connected together as shown in the following diagram. How many broadcast domains are there in the network?
you have two switches connected together as shown in the following diagram. How many broadcast domains are there in the network?
2
Which of the following statements describe how VLANs effect broadcast traffic within an internetwork?
Devices on the same VLAN have the same subnet address

Broadcast traffic is transmitted only within a VLAN

Which of the following are true using multiple VLANS on a single switch? select two
The number of broadcast domains increases

The number of collision domains remain the same

A virtual LAN can be created using which of the following?
Switch
You want to reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains and virtual LANs. Which of the following devices should you choose?
Switch
Which of the following best describes the concept of VLAN?
Devices on the same network logically grouped as if they were on separate networks
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify VLAN membership of a device?
Switch port
You manage a network with two switches. The switches are connected together through their Gigabit Ethernet uplink ports.

You define VLAN 1 and VLAn 2 on each switch. A device on the first switch in VLAN 1 needs to be communicate with a device on the same switch is VLAN 2.

What should you configure so that the two devices can communicate?

Routing
You need to keep users in all other departments from accessing the servers used by the finance department.
Which of the following technologies should you use to logically isolate the network?
VLANs
Consider the network shown in the exhibit. You have been experiencing intermittent connectivity issues with switch2. To check the status of the interfaces you run the following commands:
What is the issue with this network?
The device connected to the Fa0/1 interface has auto-negotiation disabled.
A workstation is connected to a switch on the Gi0/2 interface using a straight through cable. The Ethernet interface in the workstation has been manually configured to use a 100 Mbps link speed and full duplexing. Which of the following are true in this scenario? (Select three.)
If the link speed is 1000 Mbps or faster, full-duplex is used.
If the link speed is 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps, half-duplex is used.
The switch attempts to sense the link speed. If it can’t, the slowest link speed supported on the interface is selected.
You need to configure the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on a switch to automatically detect the appropriate link speed and duplex setting by negotiating with the device connected to the other end of the link.
Drag the command on the left to the appropriate configuration step on the right to accomplish this. Not all of the commands may be required.
Enter global configuration mode: conf t
Enter interface configuration mode: int fa0/1
Set the speed of the interface: speed auto
Set the duplex setting for the interface: duplex auto
You need to disable the FastEthernet 0/0 interface on a switch. Drag the command on the left to the appropriate configuration step on the right to accomplish this. Not all of the commands may be required.
Enter global configuration mode: conf t
Enter interface configuration mode: int fa0/0
Disable the interface: shutdown
Verify the interface is disabled: show ip interface brief
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on a switch is currently disabled. You need to enable it so a workstation can be connected to it. Drag the command on the left to the appropriate configuration step on the right to accomplish this. Not all of the commands may be required.
Enter global configuration mode: conf t
Enter interface configuration mode: int fa0/0
Verify the interface is disabled: show interface status
Enable the interface: no shut
A switch receives a frame addressed to the MAC address FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
What will the switch do with the frame?
Send it out all ports except for the port it was received on
Which command would you use on a switch to enable management from a remote network?
IP default-gateway 192.168.10.185
What does the ip address dhcp command all you to do?
Configures the switch to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server
You are configuring a switch so that you can manage it via PuTTY from the same network segment as the switch. On the switch, you enter the following commands.
Switch# config terminal
switch(config)#interface Evian 1
switch(config-if)#ip- address 192.168.1.10 225.225.225.0
will this configuration work?
No, the no shutdown command needs to be entered
Match each switch management method on left with its corresponding characteristics on the right. Each method may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Competes with normal network traffic for bandwidth.
In-band Management

Uses a dedicated communication channel.
Out-of-band management

Must be encrypted to protect communications from sniffing.
In-band management

Does not compete with normal network traffic for bandwidth.
Out-of-band management

Affected by network outages.
In-band management

Match each switch management method on left with its corresponding characteristics on the right. Each method may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Commonly sold at retail stores
Unmanaged switch

Provide port security features.
Managed switch

Support VLANs
Managed switch

Provide very few configuration options
Unmanaged switch

Can be configured over a network connection
Managed switch

Can be configured over a dedicated communication channel
Managed switch

You reconfiguring PuTTY to be used to access the CLI of Cisco switch
Which of the following configuration values would PuTTY from connection? (Select two.)
4600 baud
Flow contro = RTS/CTS
Match the Cisco device password type on the left with its function on the right
Controls the ability to log on through a LAN or WAN interface configured on the device
VTY

Controls the ability to switch configuration modes
EXEC

Controls the ability to connect to the device using a direct connection
Console

A router is configured with the login, no password condition for console access.
Which of the following statements is true about access via a Telnet or SSH session?
Access is denied
which condition are you most likely to experience on the network ?
collisions
You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your buildings connect through he single switch . Which feature should you implement?
VLANs
select the statement that best describes a broadcast storm.
A Broadcast storm occurs when there are so many broadcast messages on the network that they approach or exceed the network bandwidth..
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
spanning tree
Which feature should your switch support?
spanning tree
What should you use for this situation?
VLAN
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?
spanning trees
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause?
Duplex mismatch
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
Incorrect VLAN assignment
Which of the following will help reduce the effects of a broadcast storm?
Enable spanning tree on the switches
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
spanning tree
What could be causing this to happen?
The workstation’s network board is jabbering
The network board in a workstation is currently configured as follows:
show running-config interface
show interface
You manage a network with a single switch. On each switch port, a hub connects multiple devices to the switch.
which condition are you most likely to experience on the network ?
collisions
select the statement that best describes a broadcast storm.
A Broadcast storm occurs when there are so many broadcast messages on the network that they approach or exceed the network bandwidth..
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
spanning tree
You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your buildings connect through he single switch . Which feature should you implement?
VLANs
You manage a network that uses multiple switches. You want to provide multiple paths between switches so that if one link goes down, an alternate path is available.
Which feature should your switch support?
spanning tree
You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive doc.

What should you use for this situation?

VLAN
You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches.
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active patch between any two switches?
Spanning tree
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?
spanning trees
A user reports that network access from her workstation is very slow. The problem does not seem to be affecting any other users.
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause?
Duplex mismatch
You manage a local area network with several switches. A new employee has started today so you connect her workstation to a switch port.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

Incorrect VLAN assignment
You manage a network with multiple switches. You find that your switches are experiencing heavy broadcast storms.

Which of the following will help reduce the effects of a broadcast storm?

Enable spanning tree on the switches
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
spanning tree
While viewing the status of the interfaces on a Cisco switch, you see abnormally large of oversized ethernet frames being received on one interface. This interface is connected to a workstation located on the 2nd floor.
What could be causing this to happen?
The workstation’s network board is jabbering
The network board in a workstation is currently configured as follows:
show running-config interface
show interface
You need to perform a reverse lookup of the 10.0.0.1 IP address. Which command can you use to accomplish this? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.) A. nbtstat -a 10.0.0.3 B. ipconfig /dnslookup 10.0.0.3 C. dig -x 10.0.0.3 D. nslookup 10.0.0.3 E. arp 10.0.0.3
dig -x 10.0.0.3
nslookup 10.0.0.3
Mary calls to tell you that she can’t connect to an intranet server called WebSrvl. From her computer, you ping the server’s IP address. The ping test is successful. Which tool would you use on her workstation next to troubleshoot the problem? A. tracert B. nslookup C. nbtstat D. netstat E. arp
nslookup
You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a Unix system. You are able to connect to remote systems by using their IP address, but unable to connect using the hostname. You check the TCP/IP configuration, and note that a DNS server IP address is configured. You decide to run some manual resolution queries to ensure that the communication between the Unix system and the DNS server are working correctly. Which utilities can you use to do this? (Choose two .) A. traceroute B. tracert C. dig D. nslookup
dig
nslookup
Examine the following output : Server : helicuplar.xct.takro.net Address : 209.53.4.130 Name : westsim.com Address : 64.78.193.84 Which of the following utilities produced this output? A. nslookup B. tracert C. ipconfig D. netstat
nslookup
Consider the following output from a dig command run on a Linux system. ; <<>> DiG 8 .2 <<>> westsimlll.com ;;res options :init recurs defnam dnsrch ;;got answer : ;;->>HEADER<< -opcode :QUERY , status : NOERROR , id :4 ;;flags : qr rd ra ; QUERY :l , ANSWER :l , AUTHORITY :2, ADDITIONAL :0 ;;QUERY SECTION : ;; westsimlll.com , type= A , class= IN ;;ANSWER SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m IN A 76 .141 .43 .129 ;;AUTHORITY SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m INNS dnsl .deriatctlll .com. westsimlll.com. 7h33m INNS dns2.de riatct222.com . ;;Total query time : 78 msec ;;FROM: localhost .localdomain to SERVER :default -- 202 .64 .49 .150 ;;WHEN: Tue Feb 16 23 :21 :24 2005 ;;MSG SIZE sent : 30 rcvd :l03 which of the following utilities produced this output?
Dig
Consider the following output from a dig command run on a Linux system. ; <<>> DiG 8 .2 <<>> westsimlll.com ;;res options :init recurs defnam dnsrch ;;got answer : ;;->>HEADER<< -opcode :QUERY , status : NOERROR , id :4 ;;flags : qr rd ra ; QUERY :l , ANSWER :l , AUTHORITY :2, ADDITIONAL :0 ;;QUERY SECTION : ;; westsimlll.com , type= A , class= IN ;;ANSWER SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m IN A 76 .141 .43 .129 ;;AUTHORITY SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m INNS dnsl .deriatctlll .com. westsimlll.com. 7h33m INNS dns2.de riatct222.com . ;;Total query time : 78 msec ;;FROM: localhost .localdomain to SERVER :default -- 202 .64 .49 .150 ;;WHEN: Tue Feb 16 23 :21 :24 2005 ;;MSG SIZE sent : 30 rcvd :l03 What is the IP address of the DNS server that performed this name resolution? A. 202.64.49.150 B. 76.141.43.129 C. 192.168.1.100 D. 16.23.21.24
202.64.49.150
A user reports that he can’t browse to a specific Web site on the Internet. From his computer, you find that a ping test to the Web server succeeds. A trace route test shows that 17 hops to the destination Web server. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
incorrect DNS server address
Match each switch management method on left with its corresponding characteristics on the right. Each method may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Competes with normal network traffic for bandwidth.
In-band Management

Uses a dedicated communication channel.
Out-of-band management

Does not compete with normal network traffic for bandwidth.
Out-of-band management

Affected by network outages.
In-band management

Match each switch management method on left with its corresponding characteristics on the right. Each method may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Commonly sold at retail stores
Unmanaged switch

Provide port security features.
Managed switch

Support VLANs
Managed switch

Provide very few configuration options
Unmanaged switch

Can be configured over a network connection
Managed switch

Can be configured over a dedicated communication channel
Managed switch

You reconfiguring PuTTY to be used to access the CLI of Cisco switch
Which of the following configuration values would PuTTY from connection? (Select two.)
4600 baud
Flow contro = RTS/CTS
Match the Cisco device password type on the left with its function on the right
Controls the ability to log on through a LAN or WAN interface configured on the device
VTY

Controls the ability to switch configuration modes
EXEC

Controls the ability to connect to the device using a direct connection
Console

A router is configured with the login, no password condition for console access.
Which of the following statements is true about access via a Telnet or SSH session?
Access is denied
Which of the following connectivity hardware is used to create a VLAN?
Switch.
You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the Internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive documents on a computer that you would like to keep isolated from other computers on the network. Other hosts on the network should not be able to communicate with this computer through the switch, but you still need to access the network through the computer.

What should you use for this situation?

VLAN
You manage a network that uses switches. In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to a switch.
You want to make sure that visitors cannot plug their computers to the free network and connect to the network. However, employees who plug into those same jacks should be able to connect to the network.
What feature should you configure?
Port authentication.
You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your building connect through the single switch.
In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to a switch. You want to allow visitors to plug into these ports to gain Internet access, but they should not have access to any other devices on your private network. Employees connected throughout the rest of your building should have both private and Internet access.
Which feature should you implement?
VLANs.
Which type of device is required to implement port authentication throughout a switch?
RADIUS server.
Which of the following best describes the concept of virtual LAN?
Devices on the same network logically grouped as if they were on separate networks.
You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches.
Which feature allows the switches to pass VLAN traffic between the switches?
Trunking.
You manage a network with two switches. The switches are connected together through their Gigabit Ethernet uplink ports.
You define VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 on each switch. A device on the first switch in VLAN 1 needs to communicate with a device on the second switch also in VLAN 1.
What should you configure to allow communication between these two devices through the switches?
Trunking.
Your company is a small start-up company that has leased office space in a building shared by other businesses. All businesses share a common network infrastructure. A single switch connects all devices in the building to the router that provides Internet access.
You would like to make sure that your computers are isolated from computers used by other companies. Which feature should you request to have implemented?
VLAN.
You manage a network with two switches. The switches are connected together through their Gigabit Ethernet uplink ports.
You define VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 on each switch. A device on the first switch in VLAN 1 needs to communicate with a device on the same switch which is in VLAN 2.
What should you configure so that the two devices can communicate?q
Routing.
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify VLAN membership of a device?
Switch port.
Which switch features are typically used with VoIP
VLAN.
PoE.
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what type of switch ports are members of all VLANs defined on the switch?
Trunk ports.
Which of the following do switches and wireless access points use to control access through the device?
MAC filtering.
Which of the following are reasons to configure VLANs on a switch as opposed to using switches without VLANs? (Select two.)
Increased number of broadcast domains.
Increased security.
You have two switches connected together as shown in the following diagram. How many broadcast domains are there in the network shown?
2
Which of the following benefits apply only to creating VLANs with switches and not to segmenting the network with regular switches?
You can create multiple broadcast domains.
Which of the following statements describe how VLANs affect broadcast traffic within an internetwork? (Select two.)
Broadcast traffic is transmitted only within a VLAN.
Devices on the same VLAN have the same subnet address.
Which of the following are true regarding using multiple VLANs on a single switch? (Select two.)
The number of broadcast domains increases.
The number of collision domains remains the same.
Which interface is a member of VLAN 65?
Fa0/22
Consider the following output for a dig command run on a Linux system.

; <<> DiG 82 <<>> westsimlll.com
;;res options;init recurs defnam dnsrch
;;got answer:
;;->>HEADER<<-opcode:QUERY, status: NOERROR, id:4 ;;flags: qr rd ra; QUERY:1 ANSWER:1, AUTHORITY:2, ADDITIONAL:0 ;;QUERY SECTION ;;westsimlll.com, type = A, class = IN ;;ANSWER SECTION: westsimlll.com 7h33m IN A 76.141.43.129 ;;AUTHORITY SECTION: westsimlll.com. 7h33m IN NS dns1.deriatct111.com. westsimlll.com. 7h33m IN NS dns2.deriatct222.com. ;;Total query time: 78 sec ;;FROM: localhost.localdomain to SERVER:default --202.64.49.150 ;;WHEN: Tue Feb 16 23:21:24 2005 ;;MSG SIZE sent: 30 rcvd:103 What is the IP address of the DNS server that performed this name resolution?

202.64.49.150
After installing a new DHCP server on the network, you need to verify that the network devices are receiving IP addresses via DHCP. You reboot a Windows XP client system and using the ipconfig command, receive the following information:
Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection 1:
Description: CardBus-II 10/100 PC Card
Physical Address : 02-00-4C-3F-50
DHCP Enabled : Yes
Auto configuration Enabled : Yes
Auto configuration IP Address : 169.254.25.129
Subnet : 255.255.0.0
Default Gateway:
DNS Servers:

Which of the following statements are true?

The client system is unable to reach the DHCP server.
The client system is configured to use DHCP.
You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a UNIX system. You are able to connect to the remote system by using their IP address, but unable to connect using the hostname. You check the TCP/IP configuration, and note that a DNS server IP address is configured.
You decide to run some manual resolution queries to ensure that the communication between the UNIX system and the DNS server are working correctly. Which utilities can you use to do this?
nslookup.
dig.
Mary calls to tell you that she can’t to an intranet server called WebSrv1. From her computer, you ping the server’s IP address. The ping test is successful. Which tool would you use on her workstation next to troubleshoot the problem?
nslookup.
CorpServ is a small company with 14 client systems and a network printer. Because there are only a limited number of networked systems, you decide to use APIPA addressing for the network. With APIPA configured, all systems are able to communicate with each other but you are having trouble configuring Internet access.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
Private addresses cannot directly communicate to hosts outside the local subnet.
Consider the following output:
;; res option: init rescuers defnam dnsrch
;;got answer
;;->>HEADER;<<-opcode:QUERY, status; NOERROR, id:4 ;;flags: gr rd ra; QUERY:1, ANSWERS:1, AUTHORITY:2, ADDITIONAL:0 ;;QUERY SECTION: ;;westsimlll.com, type = A, class = IN ;;ANSWER SECTION; westsimlll.com. 7h33m IN A 76.141.43.129 ;;AUTHORITY SECTION: westsimlll.com. 7h33m IN NS dns1.deriact111.com. westsimlll.com. 7h33m IN NS dns2.deriact222.com. ;;Total query time: 78 sec ;;FROM: localhost.localdomain to SERVER: default -- 202.64.49.150 ;;WHEN: Tue Feb 6 23:21:24 2005 ;;MSG SIZE sent: 30 rcvd: 103 Which of the following utilities produced this output?
dig.
A user reports that he can’t browse to a specific Web site on the Internet.
From his computer, you find that a ping test to the Web server succeeds. A trace route test shows that 17 hops to the destination Web server.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Incorrect DNS server address.
You are implementing a DHCP server for your segment. Your segment’s IP address is 192.168.1.0. Your default gateway address is 192.168.1.254. Your DNS server address is 192.168.1.1. Your default gateway is configured as a NAT router to translate addresses between network segments.
YOu configured the 03 Router option on your DHCP server so it can deliver the IP address of the default gateway to workstations. After configuring your workstations to get their IP address information dynamically, your users complain that they are unable to access web sites on the Internet.
How can you resolve this problem?
You must configure your DHCP server with an option that delivers the IP address of the DNS server (Option 06).
Examine the following output:
Server: helicuplar.xct.takro.net
Address: 209.53.4.130
Name: westsim.com
Address: 64.78.193.84

Which of the following utilities produced this output?

nslookup.
Which of the following are valid IPv6 IP addresses?
6384:1319:7700:7631:446A:5511:8940:2552
141:0:0:0:15:0:0:1
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
FEC0::AB:9007
Match the IPv6 address configuration method on the right with it’s definition on the left.
Static Full Assignment:
The entire 128-bit address and all other configuration information is statically assigned to the host.

Static partial Assignment:
The prefix is statically assignment and the interface ID is delivered from the MAC address.

Stateless Auto-configuration:
Clients automatically generate the interface ID and learn the subnet prefix and default gateway through the neighbor discovery protocol (NDP)

Stateful DHCPv6:
Provides each client an IP address, default gateway, and other IP configuration

Stateless DHCPv6:
Supplies the client with the DNS server IP address only. Does not provide the client with an IP address and does not track the status of each client.

Which of the following tunneling methods is used to send IPv4 traffic through an IPv6 network?
4-to-6 tunneling
You manage a network with two locations: Portland and Seattle. Both locations are connected to the Internet. All computers in both locations are configured to use IPv6. You would like to implement an IPv6 solution to meet the following requirements:

Hosts in each location should be able to use IPv6 to communicate with hosts in the other location through the IPv4 Internet.

You want to use a site-to-site tunneling method instead of a host-to-host tunneling method.
Which IPv6 solution should you use?

6-to-4
Which of the following are characteristics of Teredo tunneling?
Works through NAT
dual stack hosts
tunnel endpoints configured on hosts
You have a special server at work with a custom application installed. Connections to the server that use custom application must use IPv6. The server is currently running IPv4. You are the only person who connects to the server, and you always use your laptop for the connection. Your laptop supports both IPv4 and IPv6. The rest of your company network runs only IPv4. You need a cost effective solution to allow your laptop to connect to the server. Your solution must also support communication through NAT servers. Which method should you use?
Miredo
You manage a network that uses IPv6 addressing. When clients connect devices to the network, they generate an interface ID and use NDP to leanrthe subnet prefix and default gateway.

Which IPv6 address assignment method is being used?

Stateless auto configuration
The media access control method of all Ethernet networks is
CSMA/CD
A network is connected following the IEEE 802.3 specifications. Which of the following best describes when a device can transmit messages?
The device listens to determine if the transmission media is free.
Which of the following use the CSMA/CD access method?(2 answers)
10BaseT
1000BaseT
Which of the following physical topologies are used with Ethernet networks?(2 answers)
Star
Bus
Ethernet 100BaseFX networks use what type of cabling?
Fiber-optic
Which of the following Ethernet standards uses fiber optic cabling?(2 answers)
100BaseFX

1000BaseLX

Your network follows the 100BaseTx specifications for Fast Ethernet. What is the maximum cable segment length allowed?
100 meters
With an Ethernet 10BaseT network, the maximum cable length between a computer and the hub is:
100 meters
You have been tasked with designing an Ethernet network. Your client needs to implement a very high-speed network backbone between campus buildings; some of which are around 300 m apart. Fiber-optic cabling has already been installed between buildings. Your client has asked that you use the existing cabling that operates at full-duplex. Which Ethernet standard meets these guidelines?(2 answers)
10GBaseSR
1000BaseSX
What type of cabling is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?
Type 1A STP or Category 5 UTP
What topology is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?(2 answers)
Physical star/logical bus
Physical star/logical star
Which of the following are requirements of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standards?(3 answers)
RJ-45 connectors
The cable length must be less than or equal to 100m
CAT 5e cabling
You are planning a network for an educational campus. Due to the size of the buildings and the distance between them, you have elected to use 10BaseFL hubs, cabling, and network interface cards. What is the maximum length for the network cable between a workstation and a hub?
2000 meters
Which Gigabit Ethernet standard uses multimode fiber-optic cabling and supports network segments up to a maximum of 550 m long?
1000BaseSX
You have been tasked with designing a high-speed Ethernet network. Your client’s building already has 150 ohm shielded twisted pair wiring installed. Due to budget constraints, they have asked you to reuse the existing wiring instead of installing new fiber optic cabling. Which Ethernet standard could you implement in this situation?
1000BaseCX
You would like to implement 10 Gbps Ethernet over a distance of 1 km or greater. Which of the following would be the minimum requirement for the implementation?(2 answers)
10GBaseLR standards
Single mode fiber
Which of the following standards is used by SONET?
10GBaseLW
You want to implement an Ethernet network at very long distances using fiber optic cables. Which standard and cable type would you choose?(2 answers)
Single Mode Fiber
1000BaseLX
You need to transfer data from one laptop to another and would like to use an Ethernet cable. You do not have a hub or a switch.
Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You want to connect the LAN port on a router to the uplink port on a switch. The switch does not support auto-MDI.
Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You have two switches that you need to connect using their uplink ports. The switches do not support auto-MDI.
Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You need to connect a workstation to a switch using a regular port on the switch (not an uplink port). The switch does not sport auto-MDI.
Which type of cable should you use?
Straight-Through
You have purchased a new router that you need to configure. You need to connect a workstation to the router’s console port to complete the configuration task.
Which type of cable would you most likely use?
Rollover
Which of the following connectors is typically used on one end of a rollover cable?
serial
Using the exhibit to match the connector type on the left with the corresponding letter on the right.
Using the exhibit to match the connector type on the left with the corresponding letter on the right.
A- DB-25
B- DB-9
C- RJ45
D- RJ11
E- LC
F- BNC
G- F-Type
You want to create a rollover cable that has an RJ-45 connector on both ends. How should you connect the wires within the connectors?
Connect pin 1 to pin 8, pin 2 to pin 7, pin 3 to pin 6, and pin 4 to pin 5
You are implementing a SOHO network for a local business. The ISP has already installed and connected a cable modem in the business.

The business has four computers that need to communicate with each other and the internet.

You examine each computer and notice only one of the four has a wireless NIC; they all have ethernet NICs.
What should you purchase.

An unmanaged switch and Cat5e cabling
You manage the two-location network shown in the exhibit. Workstations and servers at each location connect to a patch panel using behind-the-wall wiring. The patch panel....
Drag the cable type on the left to the most appropriate network location on the right.
You manage the two-location network shown in the exhibit. Workstations and servers at each location connect to a patch panel using behind-the-wall wiring. The patch panel….
Drag the cable type on the left to the most appropriate network location on the right.
Drop Cables
Cat6 straight-through UTP
Patch Cables
Cat6 straight-through UTP
Uplink Cables
Cat6 crossover UTP
WAN Cable
Single-mode fiber optic
Which of the following tests can be performed by a TDR?
Measure the length of a cable.
Identify the location of a fault on a cable.
You have a network connected using a physical bus topology. One of the cables connecting a workstation to the bus breaks.
Which of the following best describes what happens to network communications?
No device is able to communicate.
You manage a network that uses 1000BaseT Ethernet. You find that one device communicates on the network at only 100 Mbps.
Which tool should you use to test the drop cable and the connection to the network?
Certifier
You are creating an Ethernet network for your company. The shipping department is located in a different building that is located 150 meters from the main wiring closet. You connect a single Cat 6e cable to connect the wiring closet to the shipping building.
Which of the following should you include in your plan?
Repeater
A user from the Sales department calls to report that he is experiencing problems connecting to the Sales file server. All users in the Sales department connect to the Sales server through a single Ethernet switch. No other users have reported problems connecting to the Sales server.
Which of the following troubleshooting actions are you most likely to perform first?
Replace the network card in the user’s computer.
Users report that the Internet is no longer accessible. You suspect that the line connecting your building to the Internet is not working properly.
Which of the following allows the service provider to remotely test the local loop?
Smart jack.
You are troubleshooting a client connectivity problem on an Ethernet network. The client system has intermittent connectivity to the network. You discover that the UTP patch cable is run 75 feet from the wall outlet, passes through the ceiling and over several florescent light fixtures before reaching the client system.
Which of the following may be a cause of the connectivity problem?
EMI interfaace.
You are moving a client to a new location within an Ethernet network. Previous to the move, the client system did not have any difficulty accessing the network.
During the relocation, you attach a patch cable from the client system to the wall jack and from the patch panel to the switch. Once connected you do not get a link light on the network card or the switch. You swap out the cable running between the patch panel and the switch with a known working one but you can still not connect.
Which of the following might you suspect as the problem?
Failed patch cable between the client system and the wall jack.
You are creating an Ethernet network for your company. The shipping department is located in a different building that is located 150 meters from the main wiring closet. You connect a single Cat6e cable to connect the wiring closet to the shipping building.
Which of the following are you most likely to experience?
Attenuation.
You have decided to implement Gigabit Ethernet on your network. Each switch port is connected to a single device. Following the installation, you find one device connected to a switch that is only running at 100 Mbps.
Which of the following are likely causes?
Crosstalk.
You have a cable Internet connection at home. The installer had connected the router near the outside wall of your house with RG-6 cable.
You move the cable router a distance of 50 meters using RG-8 cables and special connector adapters.
Which condition are you most likely to experience?
Echo
You want to measure the voltage, amps, and ohms of various devices.
Which tool should you use?
Multimeter.
Which of the following standards is typically used in a rollover cable?
RJ-232
Which Gigabit Ethernet standard can support long network segments up to a maximum of 5 km when used with single mode fiber-optic cable?
1000BaseLX.
What topology is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?
Physical star/logical bus.
Physical star/logical star.
Ethernet 100BaseFX networks use what type of cabling?
Fiber optic.
You are planning a network for an educational campus. Due to the size of the buildings and the distance between them, you have elected to use 10BaseFL hubs, cabling, and network interface cards.
What is the maximum length for the network cable between a workstation and a hub?
2000 meters.
You would like to implement 10 Gbps Ethernet over a distance of 1 kilometer or greater. Which of the following would be the minimum requirement for the implementation?
10GBaseLR standards.
Single mode fiber.
Which of the following standards is used by SONET?
10GBaseLW.
What type of cabling is used with 10BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?
Type 1A STP or Category 5 UTP.
You want to implement an Ethernet network at very long distances using fiber optic cables. Which standard and cable type would you chose?
1000BaseLX.
Single mode fiber.
Which of the following are requirements of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standards?
Cat 5 cabling.
RJ-45 connectors.
The cable length must be less or equal to 100m.
With an Ethernet 10BaseT network, the maximium cable length between a computer and the hub is:
100 meters.
You have been tasked with designing an Ethernet network. Your client needs to implement a very high-speed network backbone between campus buildings; some of which are around 300 m apart. Multimode fiber-optic cabling has been already installed between buildings. Your client has asked that you use the existing cabling.
Which Ethernet standard meets these guidelines?
1000BaseSX.
10GBaseSR.
Your network follows the 100BaseFX specifications for Fast Ethernet, and uses half-duplex, multimode cable. What is the maximium cable segment length allowed?
412 meters.
You have been tasked with designing a high-speed Ethernet network. Your client’s building already has 150-ohm shielding twisted pair (STP) wiring installed. Due to budget constraints, they have asked you reuse the existing wiring instead of installing new fiber-optic cabling.
1000BaseCX.
Your network follows 100BaseTX specifications for Fast Ethernet. What is the maximum cable segment allowed?
100 meters.
Which Gigabit Ethernet standard uses multimode fiber-optic cabling and supports network segments up to a maximum of 550 meters long?
1000BaseSX.
Which of the following Ethernet standards uses fiber-optic cabling?
100BaseFX.
1000BaseLX.
What is the minimum cable specification that supports 1000 Mbps Ethernet?
Cat 5.
Which command would you use on a switch to enable management from a remote network?
IP default-gateway 192.168.10.185
What does the ip address dhcp command all you to do?
Configures the switch to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server
You are configuring a switch so that you can manage it via PuTTY from the same network segment as the switch. On the switch, you enter the following commands.
Switch# config terminal
switch(config)#interface Evian 1
switch(config-if)#ip- address 192.168.1.10 225.225.225.0
will this configuration work?
No, the no shutdown command needs to be entered
CSMA/CD
The media access control method of all Ethernet networks is ___________________.
The device listens to determine if the transmission media is free.
A network is connected following the IEEE 802.3 specifications. Which of the following best describes when a device can transmit messages?
10BaseT & 1000BaseT
Which of the following use the CSMA/CD access method? Select all that apply.
Bus and Star
Which of the following physical topologies are used with Ethernet networks? (Select two.)
Fiber optic
Ethernet 100BaseFX networks use what type of cabling?
100BaseFX & 1000BaseLX
Which of the following Ethernet standards uses fiber optic cabling? (Select two.)
100 meters
Your network follows the 100BaseTx specifications for Fast Ethernet. What is the maximum cable segment length allowed?
100 meters
With an Ethernet 10BaseT network, the maximum cable length between a computer and the hub is __________.
10BaseSR &1000BaseSX
You have been tasked with designing an Ethernet network. Your client needs to implement a very high-speed network backbone between campus buildings; some of which are around 300 meters apart. Multimode fiber-optic cabling has already been installed between buildings. Your client has asked that you use the existing cabling.
Which Ethernet standard meets these guidelines? (Choose two.)
Type 1A STP or Category 5 UTP
What type of cabling is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?
Physical star/logical bus & Physical star/logical star
What topology is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks? (Select two.)
CAT 5 cabling & RJ-45 connectors & The cable length must be less than or equal to 100m
Which of the following are requirements of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standards? (Select three.)
2000 meters
You are planning a network for an educational campus. Due to the size of the buildings and the distance between them, you have elected to use 10BaseFL hubs, cabling, and network interface cards.
What is the maximum length for the network cable between a workstation and a hub?
1000BaseSX
What Gigabit Ethernet standard uses multimode fiber-optic cabling and supports network segments up to a maximum of 550 meters long?
1000BaseCX
You have been tasked with designing a high-speed Ethernet network. Your client’s building already has 150-ohm shielded twisted pair (STP) wiring installed. Due to budget constraints, they have asked you to reuse the existing wiring instead of installing new fiber-optic cabling.
Which Ethernet standard could you implement in this situation?
Single mode fiber & 10BaseLR standards
You would like to implement 10 Gbps Ethernet over a distance of 1 kilometer or greater. Which of the following would be the minimum requirement for the implementation? (Select two.)
10GBaseLW
Which of the following standards is used by SONET?
1000BaseLX & Single mode fiber
You want to implement an Ethernet network at very long distances using fiber optic cables. Which standard and cable type would you choose? (Select two.)
Crossover
You need to transfer data from on laptop to another and would like to use an Ethernet cable. You do not have a hub or a switch.
Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You want to connect the LAN port on a router to the uplink port on a switch. The switch does not support auto-MDI.
What type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You have two switches that you need to connect using their uplink ports. The switches do not support auto-MDI
Straight-through
You need to connect a workstation to a switch using a regular port on the switch (not an uplink port). The switch does not support auto-MDI.
Which type of cable should you use?
Rollover
You have purchased a new router that you need to configure. You need to connect a workstation to the router’s console port to complete the configuration tasks.
Which type of cable would you most likely use?
Serial
Which of the following connectors is typically used on one end of a rollover cable?
RS-232
Which of the following standards is typically used in a rollover cable?
Connect pin 1 to pin 8, pin 2 to pin 7, pin 3 to pin 6 and pin 4 to pin 5
You want to create a rollover cable that has an RJ-45 connector on both ends. How should you connect the wires within connectors?
An unmanaged switch and CAT5e cabling
You are implementing a SOHO network for a local business. The ISP has already installed and connected a cable modem in the business.
The business has four computers that need to communicate with each other and the Internet. The ISP’s cable modem has only one RJ-45 port. You need to set up the network with the following in mind: Spend as little money as possible. Do not purchase unnecessary equipment. Computers need to have a gigabit connection to the network. New devices should not require management or configuration
No devices will be able to communicate
You have a network connected using a physical bus topology. One of the cables connecting a workstation to the bus breaks.

Which of the following best describes what happens to network connections?

Identify the location of a fault on a cable. & Measure the length of a cable.
Which of the following can be performed by a TDR? (Select two.)
Certifier
You manage a network that uses 1000BaseT Ethernet. You find that one device communicates on the network at only 100 Mbps.
Which tool should you use to test the drop cable and the connection to the network?
Repeater
You are creating an Ethernet network for your company. The shipping department is located in a different building that is located 150 meters from the main wiring closet. You connect a single Cat 6e cable to connect the wiring closet to the shipping building.
Which of the following should you include in your plan.
Smart Jack
Users report that the Internet is no longer accessible. You suspect that the line connecting your building to the Internet is not working properly.
Which of the following allows the service provider to remotely test the local loop?
Replace the network card in the user’s computer
A user from the Sales department calls to report that he is experiencing problems connecting to the Sales file server. All users in the Sales department connect to the Sales server through a single Ethernet switch. No other users have reported problems connecting to the Sales server.
Which of the following troubleshooting actions are you most likely to perform first?
EMI interference
You are troubleshooting a client connectivity problem on an Ethernet network. The client system has intermittent connectivity to the network. You discover that the UTP patch cable is run 75 feet from the wall outlet, passes through the ceiling and over several florescent light fixtures before reaching the client system.
Which of the following may be a cause of the connectivity problem?
Failed patch cable between the client system and the wall jack
You are moving a client to a new location within an Ethernet network. Previous to the move, the client system did not have difficulty accessing the network.
During the relocation, you attach a patch cable from the client system to the wall jack from the patch panel to the switch. Once connected you do not get a link light on the network card or the switch. You swap out the cable running between the patch panel and the switch with a known working one but you can still not connect.
Which of the following might you suspect as the problem?
Crosstalk
You have decided to implement Gigabit Ethernet on your network. Each switch port is connected to a single device.
Following the installation, you find one device connected to a switch that is only running at 100 Mbps.
Which of the following are likely causes?
Attenuation
You are creating an Ethernet network for your company. The shipping department is located in a different building that is located 150 meters from the main wiring closet. You connect a single Cat6e cable to connect the wiring closet to the shipping building.
Which of the following conditions are you most likely to experience?
Echo
You have a cable Internet connection at home. The installer had connected the router near the outside wall of your house with RG-6 cable.
You move the cable router a distance of 50 meters using RG-8 cables and special connector adapters.
Which condition are you most likely to experience?
Multimeter
You want to measure the voltage, amps, and ohms of various devices.
What tool should you use?
169.254.0.1-169.254.255.254
Which of the following IP address ranges is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing?
255.255.0.0 & 169.254.0.0
What is the network address and subnet mask used by APIPA? (Select two.)
Private addresses cannot directly communicate to hosts outside the local subnet
CorpSerc is a small company with 14 client systems and a network printer. Because there are only a limited number of networked systems, you decide to use APIPA addressing for the network. With APIPA configured, all systems are able to communicate with each other but you are having trouble configuring Internet access.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
Specify which server network interface the agent listens on for DHCP messages.
You are configuring the DHCP Relay Agent role service on a Windows server.
Which of the following is a required step for the configuration?
Routing and Remote Access
You have a Windows Server 2012 system that you want to use as a DHCP Relay Agent.

Which Windows Server 2012 service would you use to do this?

ip helper-address 172.16.30.1
You need to configure a Cisco RFC 1542 compliant router to forward any received DHCP frames to the appropriate subnet. The address of the remote DHCP server is 172.16.30.1
Which of the following commands would be used to configure the router?
You need to replace a fiber optic cable that is connecting two switches together. You instpect the existing fiber cable and determine that it uses LC connectors. You also notice the cable’s ferrule has a slight slant to it.

Which polish grade should you use to replace the existing cable?

Angled Physical Contact polish
Which type of polish grade uses green-colored connectors to help prevent using the wrong connector type?
Angled Physical Contact
You’ve connected a cable certifier to an RJ45 wall jack, and the output shown below is displayed on the device. What does this output indicate? (Select two.)
-The cable is functioning correctly
-This is a crossover cable
Consider the 850 nm multimode fiber optic cable shown below. How much loss can you expect between the transmitter and the receiver?
-1.2 dB
Long ass question #1…

Will this implementation work?

No, you shouldn’t use multimode patch cables with single mode GBIC moduals
Long ass question #2…

Will this implementation work?

No, you should purchase path cables that use MT-RJ connectors
While viewing the status of the interfaces on a Cisco switch, you see an abnormally large number of CRC errors on one interface. This interface is connected to a user’s workstation located in a cubicle on the 2nd floor.

What could be causing this to happen?

A strong emitter near the cable run connected to that interface
You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem in which one clien system is unable to connect to a server. Both the server and client system are connected to the same Ethernet network switch. No other users have complained of a problem, and you suspect that faulty network cabling might be to blame.

Which of the following troubleshooting steps are you most likely to perform first?

Use a cable tester to test the cable between the computer system and the network switch.
Your organization has been assigned a registered global routing prefix of 2001:FEED:BEEF::/48 by an ISP. Using your organization’s IPv6 addressing scheme, you’ve used the next 16 bits beyond the global routing prefix to define the following subnets:
2001:FEED:BEEF:0001::/64
2001:FEED:BEEF:0002::/64
2001:FEED:BEEF:0003::/64
2001:FEED:BEEF:0004::/64
You need to statically assign an interface ID of 0000:0000:0000:0001 to the router interface connected to the 2001:FEED:BEEF:0003::/64 subnet.
Which interface configuration command would you use to do this?
ipv6 address 2001:FEED:BEEF:0003::1/64
Your organization has decided to implement unique local unicast IPv6 addressing. A global ID of FD01:A001:0001::/48 been selected for the organization’s IPv6 addressing scheme. The next 16 bits beyond the global ID have been used to define the following subnets:
FD01:A001:0001:0001::/64
FD01:A001:0001:0002::/64
FD01:A001:0001:0003::/64
FD01:A001:0001:0004::/64
You need to statically assign an interface ID to a router interface connected to the FD01:A001:0001:0003::/64 subnet. To ensure uniqueness, the interface ID should be constructed using the MAC address of the router interface.
Which interface configuration command would you use to do this?
ipv6 address FD01:A001:0001:0003::/64 eui-64
Your company has just started contracting with the government. As part of the contract, you have configured a special server for running a custom application. Contract terms dictate that this server use only IPv6.
You have several hosts that need to communicate with this server. Hosts run only IPv4 and cannot be configured to run IPv6.
Which solution would you use to allow the IPv4 clients to communicate with the IPv6 server?
NAT-PT
Your company wants to begin the transition from IPv4 to IPv6. You want to stage the implementation on a host-by-host basis. You will enable IPv6 on existing hosts as time and budget allows. During the transition, all hosts in your site need to communicate with all other hosts. IPv6 should be used between hosts when both hosts support IPv6. NAT supported is not required. Which method should you use?
ISATAP
Which of the following are characteristics of 6-to-4 tunneling? (Select three.)
Dual stack routers
Tunnel endpoints configured on routers
Works through NAT
Which of the following are characteristics of Teredo tunneling? (Select three.)
Tunnel endpoints configured on hosts
Works through NAT
Dual stack hosts
You have a special server at work with a custom application installed. Connections to the server that use the custom application must use IPv6. The server is currently running IPv4. You are the only person who connects to the server, and you always use your laptop for the connection. Your laptop supports both IPv4 and IPv6. The rest of your company network runs only IPv4. You need a cost-effective solution to allow your laptop to connect to the server. Your solution must also support communication through NAT servers.
Which method should you use?
Teredo
Which of the following are characteristics of ISATAP for IPv6 tunneling? (Select two.)
Dual stack hosts
Dual stack routers
You are working on a workstation with the following MAC address: 10-01-64-AB-78-96. Which of the following will be the link-local address using the modified EUI-64 format?
FE80::1201:64FF:FEAB:7896
You manage a local area network with several switches. A new employee has started today so you connect her workstation to a switch port.

After connecting the workstation, you find that the workstation cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server. You check the link and status lights and the connection is working properly. A ping to the local loopback address on the workstation succeeds. No other computers seem to have a problem.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

Incorrect VLAN assignment.
A user reports that network access from her workstation is very slow. The problem does not seem to be affecting any other ways.
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause?
Duplex mismatch.
You manage a network with multiple switches. You find that your switches are experiencing heavy broadcast storms.

Which of the following will help reduce the effects of a broadcast storm?

Enable spanning tree on the switches.
Select the statement that best describes a broadcast storm.
A broadcast storm occurs where there are many broadcast messages on the network that they approach or exceed the network bandwidth.
Which of the following solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
Spanning tree.
You manage a network with a single switch. On each switch port, a hub connects multiple devices to the switch.

Which condition are you most likely to experience on the network?

Collisions.
You want to reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains and virtual LANs. Which of the ff. devices should you choose?
Switch
Which characteristic of a switch can improve bandwidth utilization and reduce the risk of sniffing attacks on the network?
A switch filters port traffic based on MAC address.
Which of the ff. is an average of using switches to create virtual LANs?
Broadcast traffic travels to a subset of devices rather than to all devices on the network.
You manage a network with a single switch. All hosts connect to the network through the switch. You want to increase the security of devices that are part of the accounting department. You want to make sure that broadcast traffic sent by an accounting computer is only received by other accounting computers, and you want to implement ACLs to control traffic sent to accounting computers through network. What should you do?
Use a router to configure a subnet for the accounting computers.
What characteristic of hubs poses a security threat?
Hubs transmit frames to all hosts on all ports.
Which of the ff. devices does “not” examine the MAC address in a frame before processing or forwarding the frame?
Hub
A relative new employee in the data entry cubical farm was assigned a user account similar to that of all of the other data entry employees. However, audit logs have shown that this user account has been used to change ACLs on several confidential files and has accessed data in restricted areas. This situation indicates which of the ff. has occurred?
Privilege escalation
An attacker has obtained the logon credentials for a regular user on your network. Which type of security threat exists if this user account is used to perform administrative functions?
Privilege escalation
Which protocol should you disable on the user access ports of a switch?
DTP
Which of the ff. attacks, if successful, causes a switch to function like a hub?
MAC flooding
Which is a typical goal of MAC spoofing?
Bypassing 802.1x port-based security
Which of the ff. switch attacks associates the attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of the victim’s devices?
ARP spoofing/poisoning
Which of the ff. best describes the concept of virtual LAN?
Device on the same network logically grouped as if they were on separate networks
You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your building connect through the single switch. In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to the switch. You want to allow visitors to plug into these ports to gain Internet Access, but they should not have access to any other devices on your private network. Employees connected throughout the rest of your building should have both private and Internet access. Which feature should you implement?
VLANs
You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive doc. on a computer that would like to keep isolated from other computers on the network. Other hosts on the network should not be able to communicate with this computer through the switch, but you still need to access the network through the computer. What should you implement?
VLAN
You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your building connect through the single switch. In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to the switch. You want to make sure that visitors cannot plug in their computer to the free network jacks and connect to the network. However, employees who plug into those same jacks should be able to connect to the network. What feature should you configure?
Port authentication
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify VLAN membership of a device?
Switch port
Which of the ff. solutions would you implement to eliminate switching loops?
Spanning Tree
Your company is a small start-up company that has leased office in a building shared by other businesses. All businesses share a common network infrastructure. A single switch connects all devices in the building to the router that provides Internet access. You would like to make sure that your computers are isolated from computers used by other companies. Which feature should you request to have implemented?
VLAN
You are the network administrator for a city library. Throughout the library are several groups of computers that provide public access to the Internet. Supervision of these computers has been difficult. You’ve had problems with patrons brining personal laptops into the library and disconnecting the network cables from the library computers to connect their laptops to the Internet. The library computers are in groups of four. Each group of four computers is connected to a hub that is connected to the library network through an access point on a switch. You want to restrict access to the network so only the library computers are permitted connectivity to the internet. What can you do?
Configure port security on the switch
In which of the ff. situations would you use port security?
You wanted to restrict the devices that could connect through a switch port
You want to increase the security of your network by allowing only authenticated users to be able to access network devices through a switch. Which of the ff. should you implement?
802.1x
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what type of switch ports are members of all VLANs defined on the switch?
Trunk ports
A virtual LAN can be created using which of the ff.?
Switch
You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches. Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?
Spanning tree
Which IDS method searches for intrusion or attack attempts by recognizing patterns or identities listed in a database?
Signature based
Which of the ff. devices is capable of detecting and responding to security threats?
IPS
You are concerned about protecting your network from network-based attacks from the Internet. Specially, you are concerned about attacks that have not yet been identified or that do not have prescribed protections. Which type of device should you use?
Anomaly based IDS
You have just installed a new network-based IDS system that uses signature recognition. What should you do on a regular basis?
Update the signature files
What do host based intrusion detection systems often rely upon to perform their detection activities?
Host system auditing capabilities
Which of the ff. describes a false positive when using an IPS device?
Legitimate traffic being flagged as malicious
You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have valuable data, but are really computers configured with fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the methods of attack that is being deployed. What should you implement?
Honeynet
What security mechanism can be used to detect attacks originating on the Internet or from within an internal trusted subnet?
IDS
If maintaining confidentiality is of the utmost importance to your organization, what is the best response when an intruder is detected on your network?
Disconnect the intruder
What is the most common form of host based IDS that employs signature or pattern matching detection methods?
Anti-virus software
A honey pot is used for what purpose?
To delay intruders in order to gather auditing data
You have configured a NIDS to monitor network traffic. Which of the ff. describes an attack that is not detected by the NIDS device?
False negative
Which of the following are reasons to configure VLAN’s on a switch as opposed to using switches without VLANs?
Increased Security
Increased Number of broadcast domains
Which of the following benefits apply only to creating VLANs with switches and not to segmenting the network with regular switches?
You can create multiple broadcast domains
Which of the following statements describe how VLANs effect broadcast traffic within an internetwork?
Devices on the same VLAN have the same subnet address

Broadcast traffic is transmitted only within a VLAN

Which of the following are true using multiple VLANS on a single switch?
The number of broadcast domains increases

The number of collision domains remain the same

Which of the following statements accurately describes a VLAN ID?
switches append a VLAN ID to the header of each frame to identify the virtual network to which it belongs
What primary advantage does the 801.1Q Trunk Protocol offer compared to ISL?
Can be used with a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco devices

IEEE standard

You’ve just enabled trunking on the fa0/1 port of Catalyst 2960 switch. By default what traffic can now be sent across this interface?
only 802.1Q traffic
1. interface Fa0/1
2. interface Fa0/2
3. interface Fa0/3
4. interface Fa0/4
1. switch port mode access
2. switch port mode access
3. switch port mode trunk
4. switch port mode access
You have a Catalyst 2900 with three defined VLANs: VLAN 1 VLAN 3 and VLAN 5. You connect the switch to another switch using the Fa0/1 interface using the switchport mode trunk command for Fa0/1. Assuming the other switch has a default configuration that will now only pass through the Fa0/1 on the switch?
Traffic for all VLANs defined on the switch
You want to verify that trunking is enabled between the Catalyst 2950XL switch and a Cisco 2600 router. Which command must you enter?
show interface Fa0/1 trunk
You want to get a list of all ports on your switch that are currently trunking. Which command should you use?
show interface trunk
You are implementing a static VLAN trunking configuration on a Catalyst 3500 switch. You would like to keep the switch from tagging packets from VLAN 3 as they leave Fast Ethernet 0/1. Which commands would you use?
Switch(config)#int fa0/1
Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 3
Which of the following are true concerning the native VLAN and VLAN trunking?
With 802.1Q trunking frames from the native VLAN are not tagged

If the native VLAN on one end of the trunk is different from the native VLAN on the other end the traffic of the native VLANS on both sides cannot be transmitted correctly on the trunk

Frames are placed into the native VLANS when they enter the 802.1Q trunking interface but do not have an 802.1Q header

Which of the following statements accurately describes a VLAN ID?
Switches append a VLAN ID to the header of each frame to identify the virtual network to which it belongs
What primary advantages does the 802.1Q Trunking Protocol offer compared to ISL ?
IEEE Standard
Can be used with a mix of Cisco and Non Cisco Devices
You’ve just enabled trunking on the fa0/1 port of a Catalyst 2960 switch. By default what traffic can be sent across this interface?
only 802.1Q traffic
You would like to manually configure the trunk status on each port for Switch A so that the appropriate type is selected and so that a trunking protocol is not used. Match the command on the left with the correct port on Switch A

1.Interface Fa0/1
2. Interface Fa0/2
3. Interface Fa0/3
4. Interface Fa0/4

1. switchport mode access
2. switchport mode access
3. switchport mode trunk
4. switchport mode access
You have a Catalyst 2950 switch with three defined VLANS: VLAN1, VLAN3, and VLAN5. You connect the switch to another switch using the Fa0/1 interface and use the switchport mode trunk command for Fa0/1. Assuming the other switch has the default configuration what will now pass through the Fa0/1 switch?
Traffic for all VLANS defined on the switch
You want to verify that trunking is enabled between the Catalyst 2950XL switch and the Cisco 2600 router. Which command must you enter?
show interface fa0/1 trunk
You want to get a list of all ports on your switch that are currently trunking. Which command should you use?
show interface trunk
You are implementing a static VLAN trunking configuration on a Catalyst 3550 switch. You would like to keep the switch from tagging packets from VLAN3 as they leave FastEthernet 0/1. Which commands would you use?
Switch(config)# int fa 0/1
Switch(config)# switchport mode trunk
Switch(config)# switchport trunk native vlan 3
Which of the following is true concerning native VLAN and VLAN trunking?
With 802.1Q trunking frames from the native VLAN are not tagged

Frames are placed into the native VLAN when they enter an 802.1Q trunking interface but do not have a and 802.1Q header

If the native VLAN on one end of the trunk is different than the native VLAN on the other end the traffic of the native VLAN’s on both sides cannot be transmitted correctly on the trunk.

You are adding a new switch to your VLAN network. You want to be able to create modify and delete local VLANs on this new switch and forward VTP advertisements but you do not want the local VLAN’s to be advertised to other switches on the network. Which command should you use on the new switch before introducing it to the network?
vtp mode transport
You have a VLAN network and your primary switch just failed. You must replace it. You decide to enable one of your existing switches to create modify and delete VLANs for the network. Which command should you use on the existing switch to promote it to perform these functions?
vtp mode server
What is the default VTP mode for a Catalyst 2950 switch?
server
You have three switches connected together. The VTP configuration of each status is shown. You notice that when you make VLAN configuration change on switch A that the change is not passed to switch C. What should you do to correct this problem?
On switch B change the VTP domain name to CCNA

Connect switch C directly to switch A

You have three switches connected together. What is true of the network configuration of these switches?
The switches must be manually configured before trunking will happen

VLAN changes made on Switch A will not be forwarded through Switch B to switch C

You are configuring VTP for your network. All switches are on the same domain. You want to use VTP pruning and passwords. What should you do ?
Configure the password on each switch
Enable VTP pruning on one VTP server
How does VTP use the VTP password?
Passwords are sent in all VTP advertisements and validate that the packet came from a trusted source
Which three statements about creating VLANs with Cisco switches are true?
Each VLAN runs an independent copy of the Spanning Tree algorithm

By default all Cisco switches run the spanning tree protocol

All devices connected to the same switchport are on the same VLAN

Multiple VLANs have been created on a switched internetwork. How will these VLANs effect the function of the Spanning Tree protocol?
A separate spanning tree exists for each VLAN
What problem does the Spanning Tree protocol prevent?
It prevents message loops from developing when a switch or bridge is connected to the same location more than once
Which of the following are advantages of using the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in network segmented bridges?
STP identifies the most efficient path through a bridged network

STP prevents message loops from forming

STP lets you provide redundancy by using more than one connection between devices which makes your network more stable

Which statements accurately describes port states of both bridges and switches?
In the learning state the MAC address table can be populated but frames not forwarded.

Ports in a blocked state still receive BPDUs

A switch running STA is a backup bridge. What state is it in?
Blocking
Switches running the STA are in the process of exchanging BPDUs and defining their roles. In what state are the switches?
Listening
A switch running STA is in a learning state. A message arrives at the switch destined for a different network segment. Which of the following best describes what the switch will do?
It places the source address and segment in its database but does not forward the message
A switch running STA is in the listening state. A message arrives at the switch destined for a different network segment. Which of the following best describes what the switch will do?
It does not record the address or segment information. It does not forward the message
You have just connected four switches as shown in the Exhibit. Assuming the default switch configuration, how can your force Switch C to become a root bridge?
Configure a priority number of 4096 for switch C
You have three switches configured as shown in the exhibit. For each port identify the port role and status after spanning tree convergence by matching the port states on the left with the port states on the graphic

1. A Gi0/1
2. A Gi0/2
3. B Gi0/1
4. B Gi0/2
5. C Gi0/1
6. C Gi0/2

1. Altn BLK
2. Root FWD
3. Desg FWD
4. Desg FWD
5. Desg FWD
6. Root FWD
You have two switches connected as shown in the exhibit. You would like to configure rapid spanning tree on Switch A. On which ports would you use portfast feature?
Fa0/1 and Fa0/2
You have been using PVST+ on your Cisco switches. You’d like to start using rapid spanning tree instead. Which of the following would you do?
On each switch use no spanning-tree uplinkfast

On each switch configure the mode with the spanning-tree rapid-pvst command

You need to configure spanning tree on a Cisco 2960 switch. You’d like to use a spanning tree protocol that uses the 802.1w standards. You’d like to take advantage of the fast convergence when the trunk link goes down and fast transition to forwarding state for edge links. Which commands will be part of your configuration?
switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
You have three switches configured as shown in the Exhibit. For each port, identify the port role and status after spanning tree convergence by matching the port states on the left with the ports on the graphic.

1. A Gi0/1
2. A Gi0/2
3. B Gi0/1
4. B Gi0/2
5. C Gi0/1
6. Gi0/2

1. Root FWD
2. Desg FWD
3. Root FWD
4. Altn BLK
5. Desg FWD
6. Desg FWD
You are configuring two catalyst 3550 switches with redundant connections. To increase the available traffic bandwidth between the switches you should configure the switches to actively negotiate an Ethernet using PAgP channel group 5.
Which command would you use for each redundant link?
Switch(config-if)#channel-group 5 mood desirable
You are configuring two Catalyst 2960 switches with redundant connections. To reduce the spanning tree convergence times, you should configure the switches to actively negotiate an EthernetChannel using LACP channel group 4.
Switch(config-if)#channel-group 4 mode active
What is the effect of using the channel-group 3 mode desirable interface configuration command?
A channel is formed with another port group interface in either auto or desirable mode

The command configures the interface to actively negotiate the EtherChannel for PAgP channel group 3

What is the effect using the channel-group 2 mode passive interface configuration command?
A channel is formed with another port group interface only if it is in active mode

The command configures the interface in a passive negotiating state and forms an EtherChannel if the port receives LACP packets

You have configured an Ethernet Channel between two switches. To verify the EtherChannel you use the show etherchannel summary command and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. Which of the following is true?
GigabitEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 are part of channel group 1

The etherchannel is using the 802.3ad standard

You are configuring an 1841 Cisco router for inter-VLAN communication. You would like to use one physical interface to handle the incoming VLANS 2 and 10. The VLANs are encapsulated with 802.1Q tags. Which command(s) would you use to configure the physical interface for VLAN2?
router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q2
router(config-subif)#ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0
router(config-subif)#int fa 0/1.2
You are configuring an 1841 Cisco router for inter-VLAN communication. You would like to use one physical interface to handle the incoming VLANS 2 and 10. The switch connected to the router is sending 802.1Q encapsulated traffic for VLAN 2 but is not encapsulating VLAN 10. Which command would you use to ensure that the router correctly handles traffic coming from the switch?
router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10 native
Which of the following best describes a Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) on a multi-layer switch?
A SVI is mostly implemented to interconnect the VLANs between distribution and access switches in a multi-switched network

A multi-layer switch treats a SVI as a physical link through which it can route traffic

You have configured inter-VLAN routing on a Catalyst 3550 switch. You enter the show ip route command and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. Which of the following is true?
Traffic sent within VLANS 2, 3, and 11 will be routed on the 3550 switch

VLAN 11 has a virtual IP address in the 10.1.11.0 network

You have configured inter-VLAN routing on a Catalyst 3550 switch. Hosts belonging to VLAN 2 cannot contact servers belonging to VLAN 3. To troubleshoot the issue you enter the show ip route command and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. Which of the following may be true?
The VLAN 2 interface is not enabled with the no shutdown command

VLAN 2 does not have an interface IP address

You have configured inter-VLAN routing on a Catalyst 3500 switch. You enter the show run command and receive output as shown in the exhibit. Which of the following is true?
Interface VLAN 2 is enabled with the no shutdown interface configuration command

Traffic sent from VLAN 2 to VLAN 3 will not reach VLAN 3

You have configured an 1841 Cisco router for inter-VLAN communication. You enter the show run command and receive the output as shown in the exhibit. Which of the following is true?
The router is using two FastEthernet 0/0 subinterfaces for VLANS 2 and 3

The switch connected to the router’s FastEthernet 0/0 interface is not encapsulating VLAN 2 traffic

The router is configured to use 802.1Q encapsulation for inter-VLAN routing

You need to enable hosts on your network to find the IP address of logical names such as srv1.myserver.com Which device would you use?
DNS server
You want to implement a protocol on your network that allows computers to find the IP address of a host from a logical name. Which protocol should you implement?
DNS
Listed below are several DNS record types. Match the record the on the left with its function on the right.
Points a hostname to an IPv4
A
Provides alternate names to hosts that already have a host record.
CNAME
Points an IP address to a hostname
PTR
Points a hostname to an IPv6 address
AAAA
identifies servers that can be used to deliver mail.
MX
Listed below are several DNS record types. Match the record type on the left with its function on the right.
Identify a domain controller- SRV
identify a mail server- MX
Map a host name to an IPv4 address- A
Map an IPv4 address to a host name- PTR
which of the following services automatically creates and deletes host records wen an ip address lease is created or released?
DYNAMIC DNS
If dynamic DNS is being used, which of the following events will cause a dynamic update of the host records?
The DHCP server renews an ip address lease
The ipconfig/release command is entered on a workstation.
OSI Model (Open Systems Interconnection Reference Model)
model for understanding and developing computer-to-computer communication developed in the 80s by ISO; divides networking functions among 7 layers
Physical Layer
Responsible for the physics of the network (Signaling, Cabling, Connectors)
Data Link Layer
The second layer in the OSI model. bridges the networking media with the Network layer. Its primary function is to divide the data it receives from the Network layer into frames that can then be transmitted by the Physical layer.
Network Layer
Fragments frames to traverse to different networks. Also introduces Internet Protocol (IP)
Internet Protocol (IP)
The method of communication that allows information to be exchanged across the Internet and across varying platforms that may be accessing or sending information.
Transport Layer
Responsible for moving “parcels” using TCP or UDP
Session Layer
Communication management between devices (Start, Stop, Restart)
Presentation Layer
Responsible for Character Encoding and Application Encryption. Often combined with the Application Layer
Application Layer
The only normally visible layer of the OSI Model
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
A communications protocol that uses packet switching to facilitate the transmission of messages; the protocol used with the Internet.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
A connectionless TCP/IP protocol for fast transport but no guarantee of delivery.
Match each decimal value on the left with the corresponding hexadecimal value on the right.
11:17
B:11
D:13
F:15
C:12
10:16
What is the binary format for the following decimal IP address? 131.9.202.111
10000011.00001001.11001010.01101111
What is the decimal format for the following IPaddress
206.58.170.67
You have implemented a network where hosts are assigned specific roles, such as for file sharing and printing. Other hosts access those resources but do not host services of their own.

What type of network do you have?

Client/server

Peer-to-peer

Intranet

Extranet

Client/server

Explanation
In a client/server network, hosts have specific roles. For example, some hosts are assigned server roles which allows them to provide network resources to other hosts. Other hosts are assigned client roles which allows them to consume network resources.

In a peer-to-peer network, each host can provide network resources to other hosts or access
resources located on other hosts, and each host is in charge of controlling access to those
resources.

An intranet is a private network that uses Internet technologies. Services on an intranet are only available to hosts that are connected to the private network. An extranet is a private network that uses Internet technologies, but whose resources are made available to external (but trusted) users. For example, you might create a Web site on a private network that only users from a partner company can access.

You have implemented a network where each device provides shared files with all other devices on the network.

What type of network do you have?

Multiple access

Peer-to-peer

Polling

Client/server

Peer-to-peer

Explanation
In a peer-to-peer network, each host can provide network resources to other hosts or access resources located on other hosts, and each host is in charge of controlling access to those resources.

In a client/server network, hosts have specific roles. For example, some hosts are assigned server roles which allows them to provide network resources to other hosts. Other hosts are assigned client roles which allows them to consume network resources.

Polling is a media access method where a single device grants permission to other devices to access the network. Multiple access describes a media access method where each device determines when the medium is free.

You have a network that uses a logical bus topology. How do messages travel through the network?

Messages are broadcast to all devices connected to the network.

Messages travel from one device to the next until they reached the destination device.

Messages are sent to a central device which then forwards the message to the destination device.

Messages are sent directly to the correct destination device.

Messages are broadcast to all devices connected to the network.

Explanation
Messages sent using a physical bus topology are broadcast to all devices in the network. The device in the middle of the star (typically a hub), receives the message and forwards it on to all other devices.

In which of the following topologies does each device on the network act as a repeater, sending the signal to the next device?

Bus

Tree

Star

Ring

Ring

Explanation
In ring topologies, each device on the network acts as a repeater to send the signal to the next device.

Which of the following topologies connects each device to a neighboring device?

Bus

Tree

Ring

Star

Ring

Explanation
In ring topologies, each device is connected to a neighboring device, until a ring is formed.

You have a network that uses a logical ring topology. How do messages travel through the network?

Messages are sent directly to the destination device only.

Messages are sent to a central device which then forwards the message to the destination device.

Messages travel from one device to the next until they reached the destination device.

Messages are sent to all devices connected to the network.

Messages travel from one device to the next until they reached the destination device.

Explanation
In a logical ring topology, messages travel to each device in turn. If the message is not intended for that device, the message is forwarded to the next device on the network.

You have a small network that uses a hub to connect multiple devices. What physical topology is used?

Mesh

Ring

Star

Bus

Star

Explanation
A hub creates a network with a physical star topology. The physical star topology uses a logical bus topology, where messages are sent to all devices connected to the hub. A mesh topology is a series of point-to-point links between devices. A ring topology uses a central device called an MSAU.

You have been asked to implement a network infrastructure that will accommodate failed connections. Which of the following network topologies provides redundancy for a failed link?

Star

Mesh

Bus

Ring

Mesh

Explanation
In a mesh topology, each network device is interconnected to all other network nodes. This creates multiple data paths and in the event of a failed link, the data has an alternate route to arrive at its destination.
The star topology connects network devices to the network with a single patch cable and the failure of a patch cable will make the connected device unavailable. The bus topology has a single point of failure, if there is a break in the network media, the network will be unavailable. A single break in a physical ring topology will disable the network.

You have implemented an adhoc wireless network that doesn’t employ a wireless access point. Every wireless network card can communicate directly with any other wireless network card on the network. What type of physical network topology has been implemented in this type of network?

Mesh

Ring

Star

Tree

Bus

Mesh

Explanation
This type of network uses a physical mesh topology. The key characteristics of a mesh topology
are:
• There’s no central connecting point.
• Any host can communicate directly with any other host on the network.

A mesh network, such as this one, is usually impractical on a wired network. Each host would have to have a separate, dedicated network interface and cable for each host on the network. However, a mesh topology can be implemented with relative ease on a wireless network due to the lack of wires.

You want to implement a fault tolerant topology as you interconnect routers on your wide area network. Which of the following would meet your needs?

Bus

Ring

Mesh

Star

Mesh

Explanation
A mesh topology has multiple connections at each node, increasing connectivity fault tolerance. None of the other topologies have native fault tolerance built in.

Which of the following topologies connects all devices to a trunk cable?

Tree

Bus

Star

Ring

Bus

Explanation
The bus topology connects all devices to a trunk cable.

What device is used to create a physical star topology?

Switch

Firewall

Bridge

Router

Switch

Explanation
A physical star topology uses a switch or a hub. Routers are used to connect multiple subnets together. A firewall is a router that performs filtering on packets or other information contained in network communications.

Which of the following topologies connects each network device to a central hub?

Star

Mesh

Bus

Ring

Star

Explanation
Star topologies connect each device on the network to a central hub.

Which of the following protocols stores email on the mail server and gives users a choice to download mail or keep it on the server? (Select 2)

POP3

SMTP

NTP

IMAP4

IMAP4 & POP3

Explanation
IMAP4 allows a mail server to hold messages for a client. POP3 is a simpler protocol than IMAP4 that downloads email messages and deletes them from the server by default, but most newer POP3 clients provide an option to leave mail on the server after download. SMTP allows
a user to send email to a server. The NTP protocol synchronizes the clocks of all computers on a network.

Which protocol is used on the World Wide Web to transmit Web pages to Web browsers?

SMTP

HTML

HTTP

NNTP

HTTP

Explanation
HTTP or HyperText Transfer Protocol is used by Web servers and browsers to transmit Web pages on the Internet. This is often confused with HTML or HyperText Markup Language which is the markup language used to create Web content.

You want to transfer a file from a UNIX server to a Windows 2000 computer. Which of the following utilities could you use to do this? Select all that apply.

Netstat

TFTP

FTP

Tracert

Telnet

NBTSTAT

FTP & TFTP

Explanation
UNIX computers use TCP/IP, as do Windows 2000 computers. Therefore, the TCP/IP utilities FTP and TFTP will both allow you to transfer files.

Which of the following TCP/IP protocols do email clients use to download messages from a remote mail server?

SNMP

POP3

SPC

FTP

SMTP

POP3

Explanation
The POP3 protocol is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite and used to retrieve email from a remote server to a local client over a TCP/IP connection. SNMP is a protocol used to monitor network traffic. SMTP is a TCP/IP protocol used to send email. FTP is used to transfer files.

You want to allow your users to download files from a server running the TCP/IP protocol. You want to require user authentication to gain access to specific directories on the server. Which TCP/IP protocol should you implement to provide this capability?

HTML

FTP

IP

HTTP

TFTP

TCP

FTP

Explanation
You should implement the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). It enables file transfers and supports user authentication. The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) enables file transfer, but does not support user authentication.

Which of the following protocols allows hosts to exchange messages to indicate problems with packet delivery?

IP

TCP

ARP

DHCP

IGMP

ICMP

ICMP

Explanation
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) allows hosts to exchange messages to indicate the status of a packet as it travels through the network.

Your company has just acquired another company in the same city. You are given the task of integrating the two email systems so that messages can be exchanged between the email servers. However, each network uses an email package from a different vendor. Which TCP/IP protocol will enable messages to be exchanged between systems?

IMAP4

SMTP

ICMP

POP3

FTP

SMTP

Explanation
The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) specifies how messages are exchanged between email servers. POP3 and IMAP4 are used by email clients to download email messages from email servers. FTP is a file transfer protocol. ICMP is used in ping and traceroute for communicating network communication information.

You have a large TCP/IP network and want to keep hosts’ real time clock synchronized. What protocol should you use?

SMTP

NNTP

SAP

NTP

SNMP

NTP

Explanation
The network time protocol (NTP) lets you keep clocks synchronized.

What protocol sends email to a mail server?

SNMP

POP3

SMTP

FTP

TFTP

SMTP

Explanation
SMTP sends email to a mail server.

You are asked to recommend an email retrieval protocol for a company’s sales team. The sales team needs to access email from various locations and possibly different computers. The sales team does not want to worry about transferring email messages or files back and forth
between these computers. Which email protocol was designed for this purpose?

IMAP

SMTP

MFTP

POP4

POP3

IMAP

Explanation
The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is an email retrieval protocol designed to enable users to access their email from various locations without the need to transfer messages or files back and forth between computers. Messages remain on the remote mail server and are not automatically downloaded to a client system. POP3 is an email retrieval protocol that downloads and then deletes messages from a mail server. POP3 is well suited for reading email offline? however, you need to go online when you want to receive and send new messages. Once your new messages have been downloaded to your computer you can log off to read them. This option is often used when email is received over a dialup connection.

Which OSI model layer is responsible for guaranteeing reliable message delivery?

Transport

Application

Data Link

Session

Transport

Explanation
The Transport layer is responsible for connection services that provide reliable message delivery through error detection and correction mechanisms. Specifically, the TCP protocol provides these services. The Application layer integrates network functionality into the host operating system, and enables network services. The Session layer’s primary function is managing the sessions in which data is transferred. The Data Link layer defines the rules and procedures for hosts as they access the Physical layer.

You are an application developer and are writing a program to exchange video files through a TCP/IP network. You need to select a transport protocol that will guarantee delivery. Which TCP/IP protocol would you implement that provides this capability?

RIP

TCP

IP

FTP

UDP

TFTP

TCP

Explanation
Write the application to use the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP guarantees delivery through error checking and acknowledgments.

Which three of the following functions are performed by the OSI Transport layer?

Reliable message delivery

Format packets for delivery through the media

Data segmentation and reassembly

End-to-end flow control

Path identification and selection

Control media access, logical topology, and device identification

Consistent data formatting between dissimilar systems

Reliable message delivery, Data segmentation and reassembly, & End-to-end flow control

Explanation
The Transport layer is responsible for taking upperlayer data, breaking it into segments, and providing for reliable communications through end-to-end flow control and error correction and detection. Transmitting messages through the media is performed at the Physical layer. Media access, logical topology, and device identification occurs at the Data Link layer. Path identification and selection is a function of the Network layer. Data formatting is performed at the Presentation layer.

In the OSI model, what is the primary function of the Network layer?

Transmits data frames

Ensures that packets are delivered with no loss or duplication

Routes messages between networks

Allows applications to establish, use, and end a connection

Routes messages between networks

Explanation
The Network layer is responsible for routing messages between networks.

Which of the following functions are performed at the Physical layer of the OSI model?

Data translation

Movement of data across network cables

Conversation identification

Enablement of network services

Provision of an environment in which to run network applications

Movement of data across network cables

Explanation
The Physical layer is concerned with how to transmit data and how to connect network hosts.

In the OSI model, which of the following functions are performed at the Application layer? (Select all that apply.)

Data translation

Enabling communication between network clients and services

Conversation identification

Integration of network functionality into the host operating system

Enabling communication between network clients and services

Integration of network functionality into the host operating system

Explanation
The Application layer enables network services, and integrates network functionality into the
host operating system. Applications actually run above the OSI Application layer.
Conversation identification is accomplished at the Session layer through connection or
transaction ID numbers. Data translation is performed at the Presentation layer.

Which two of the following are included as part of Data Link layer specifications?

Composition of electrical signals as they pass through the transmission medium.

Controlling how messages are propagated through the network.

Synchronizing individual bits as they are transmitted through the network.

Identifying physical network devices.

Controlling how messages are propagated through the network.

Identifying physical network devices.

Explanation
The Data Link layer controls identifying devices on a network as well as how messages travel through the network (the logical topology).
The other functions listed here are performed by the Physical layer.

Which of the following tasks is associated with the Session layer?

Connection establishment

Acknowledgement coordination

Transmission synchronization

Host ID number assignment

Connection establishment

Explanation
Connection establishment is controlled through Session layer protocols.

What is the basic purpose of the OSI Physical layer?

Defines basic physical structures, such as disks.

Coordinates rules for managing network servers.

Coordinates rules for routing packets.

Coordinates rules for transmitting bits.

Coordinates rules for transmitting bits.

Explanation
The OSI Physical layer coordinates rules for transmitting bits.

Which of the following are functions of the MAC sublayer? (Select two.)

Mapping hardware addresses to linklayer addresses

Defining a unique hardware address for each device on the network

Creating routing tables based on MAC addresses

Letting devices on the network have access to the LAN

Defining a unique hardware address for each device on the network

Letting devices on the network have access to the LAN

Explanation
The MAC sublayer defines a unique MAC or datalink address for each device on the network. This address is usually assigned by the manufacturer. The MAC sublayer also provides devices with access to the network media.

The Data Link Layer of the OSI model is comprised of two sublayers. What are they? (Select two.)

LLC

DLC

LAT

MAC

SAN

Explanation

The Data Link layer is split into the following sublayers:
• Logical Link Control (LLC) Sublayer Provides the operating system link to the device driver.
• Media Access Control (MAC) Sublayer Translates generic network requests into device specific terms.

In the OSI model, which of the following functions are performed at the Presentation layer? (Select two.)

Maintain separate client connections

Handle general network access, flow control, and error recovery

Encrypt and compress data

Transmit data frames

Specify data format (such as file formats)

Provide network services

Encrypt and compress data

Specify data format (such as file formats)

Explanation
The Presentation layer encrypts data, changes and converts character sets, and compresses data. File formats (such as .jpg, .wmv, and .wav) are part of the Presentation layer. The Application layer provides network services. The Session layer maintains separate client
connections through session IDs, and maintains those sessions. Flow control and error detection are provided at both the Transport layer and the Data Link layer. Transmitting frames happens at the Physical layer.

Which of the following protocols includes extensive error checking to ensure that a transmission is sent and received without mistakes?

TCP

UDP

UDB

UCP

TCP

Explanation
The TCP protocol includes error checking.

The UDP transport protocol provides which of the following features? (Select all that apply.)

Guaranteed delivery

Low overhead

Sequence numbers and acknowledgements

Connectionless datagram services

Low overhead

Connectionless datagram services

Explanation
UDP is a connectionless protocol used by applications that need low overhead and do not
require guaranteed delivery.

You are adding new wires in your building for some new offices. The building has a false ceiling that holds the lights. You would like to run your Ethernet cables in this area. Which type of cable must you use?

Plenum

PVC

Fiber optic

Cat 5e or Cat 6e

STP

Plenum

Explanation
Plenum cable is fire resistant and nontoxic? it must be used when wiring above ceiling tiles. PVC cable cannot be used to wire above ceilings because it is toxic when burned. Cat 5e cables provide better EMI protection than Cat 5 cables, and Cat 6e cables are an improvement over Cat 6 specifications, but neither are a requirement for using in a ceiling area. If the area has a lot of EMI, you might consider using STP or fiber optic cables, but this would not be a requirement just because wires were in a ceiling area. Typically, you can avoid EMI sources by rerouting cables.

In which of the following situations might you use an RJ11 connector?

You want to connect the 10BaseT network card in your computer to a switch.

You want to connect your computer to the Internet with a dialup connection.

You want to upgrade your 10BaseT network to 100BaseT.

You want to test a network cable to see if there is a break in the line.

You want to connect your computer to the Internet with a dialup connection.

Explanation
RJ11 connectors are typically used for telephones and modems.

You are installing networking wiring for a new Ethernet network at your company’s main office building. The project specifications call for Category 5 UTP network cabling and RJ45 wall jacks. Near the end of the project, you run out of wire before the last few runs are complete.
You have a spool of Category 3 network cable in storage. Upon investigation, it appears very similar to Category 5 wiring. Should you substitute Category 3 cabling for Category 5 cabling to finish the project?

No, the sheath surrounding Category 5 cable is much thicker? creating an extra layer of shielding to reduce crosstalk and support higher data rates.

Yes, you can substitute Category 5 wiring with Category 3 wiring, as they are electrically identical.

No, Category 5 cabling has more twists per inch than Category 3 cabling to reduce crosstalk and support higher data rates.

No, Category 3 cabling doesn’t support RJ45 connectors.

No, Category 5 cabling uses a thicker copper wire than Category 3 cable? enabling higher data transmission rates.

No, Category 5 cabling has more twists per inch than Category 3 cabling to reduce crosstalk and support higher data rates.

Explanation
While Category 3 and Category 5 cabling may appear similar physically, they are electrically
different. Category 5 cabling is twisted much tighter than Category 3 cabling. This reduces

When would you typically use an RJ11 connector?

When using single mode fiber optic cables.

When connecting a phone to a phone line.

When using multimode fiber optic cables.

When using RG6 cables.

When using Cat 3 cables.

When using Cat 5 or higher cables.

When connecting a phone to a phone line.

Explanation
An RJ11 connector is used for connecting analog telephones to the telephone jacks. Cat 3, Cat 5, and higher twisted pair cables use RJ45 connectors. Coaxial cables use Ftype or BNC connectors. Fiber optic cables use a variety of connectors (RC, RT, LC, MTRJ).

Which of the following applications is more likely to justify the investment in Category 6 cable?

Instant Messaging

Printing

Email

Streaming video

Streaming video

Explanation
Category 6 cable is specified to extend the available bandwidth from 100 MHz to 200 MHz. This serves as the basis for greater capacity, throughput and reliability. Producing high quality streaming multimedia usually requires consistent highspeed network bandwidth.
Email and messaging are typically low bandwidth applications consisting of small, brief transmissions. Printing typically consists of greater amounts of data being transferred, however printing is highly amenable to delays and buffering and usually will not suffer any noticeable
effects with decreased bandwidth.

Which of the following cable types often includes a solid plastic core?

Cat 3

Cat 6

Cat 5e

Cat 5

Cat 6

Explanation
Cat 6 cables include a solid plastic core that keeps the twisted pairs separated and prevents the cable from being bent too tightly.

You have just signed up for a broadband home Internet service that uses coaxial cable. Which connector type will you most likely use?

RJ45

SC

Ftype

BNC

ST

RJ11

F-type

Explanation
Use an F-type connector for broadband cable connections that use coaxial cable. Use a BNC connector for 10Base2 Ethernet networks. Use an RJ11 connector for modem connections to a phone line. Use an RJ45 connector for an Ethernet network that uses twisted pair cable. Use ST and SC connectors for fiberoptic cables.

You have a small home network connected to the Internet using an RG6 cable. You need to move the router connecting the network to the Internet, but can’t find any RG6 cable. Which cable types could you use instead?

RG8 or RG58

RG58 or RG59

RG8, RG58, or RG59

RG8

RG59

RG58

RG59

Explanation
RG6 has an impedance rating of 75 ohms. When using coaxial cables, it is important to use cables with the same impedance rating. Only RG59 is rated for 75 ohms. RG8 and RG58 are rated for 50 ohms.

F-type connectors are typically used with cables using which of the following standards? (Select two.)

RG58

Cat 6e

Cat 5e

RG6

Cat 5

RG59

RG6 & RG59

Explanation
F-type connectors are used with coaxial cable, and are typically used for cable TV and satellite installations using RG6 or RG59 cables. RG58 cables typically use BNC connectors and cables are used for 10Base2 Ethernet. Cat 5, 5e, and 6e cables use RJ45 connectors.

Which of the following cable classifications are typically used for cable and satellite networking with coaxial cables? (Select two.)

RG6

RG8

RG58

RG59

RG6 & RG59

Explanation
Both RG6 and RG59
can be used for cable and satellite networking applications, although RG6 has less signal loss than RG59, and is a better choice for networking applications, especially where longer distances (over a few feet) are involved. Both RG6 and RG59 have an impedance rating of 75 ohms.
RG8 and RG58 have an impedance rating of 50 ohms and were used with 10 Mbps Ethernet.

Of the following cables, which offer the best protection against EMI?

Cat 5e

Cat 5

Cat 6e

RG6

RG6

Explanation
Coaxial cable offers better protection against EMI than twisted pair cables. Coaxial cable has a mesh conductor which provides a ground and protects against EMI. In general, the higher the twisted pair cable standard, the better protection against some forms of EMI (typically crosstalk). For twisted pair, use shielded twisted pair instead of unshielded twisted pair. Use fiber optic for the best protection against EMI.

Which of the following are characteristics of coaxial network cable? (Choose three.)

It uses two concentric conductors made from plastic or glass which conduct light signals.

It has a conductor made from copper in the center of the cable.

It is composed of four pairs of 22-gauge copper wire.

The conductors within the cable are twisted around each other to eliminate crosstalk.

It uses two concentric metallic conductors.

The ends of the cable must be terminated.

It uses RJ45 connectors

It has a conductor made from copper in the center of the cable.
It uses two concentric metallic conductors.
The ends of the cable must be terminated.

Explanation
Coaxial cable is composed of a central copper conductor surrounded by an insulator which is then surrounded by a second metallic mesh conductor. The name coaxial is derived from the fact that both of these conductors share a common axis. When using coaxial cable, both ends of the cable must be terminated.

Which of the following are characteristics of an LC fiber optic connector? (Choose two.)

They use a stainless steel housing.

They are threaded.

They can be used with either fiber optic or copper cabling.

They use a one-piece bayonet connecting system.

They use a housing and latch system similar to an RJ45 UTP connector.

They are half the size of standard connectors.

They use a housing and latch system similar to an RJ45 UTP connector.

They are half the size of standard connectors.

Explanation
LC fiber optic connectors are small? about half the size of other fiber optic connectors. Their appearance is similar to a typical RJ45 connector used with UTP wiring. Like an RJ45 connector, it uses a small latch to lock the connector in a jack.

Of the following cables, which offer the best protection against EMI?

Cat 5e

Cat 5

RG6

Single mode fiber optic

Single mode fiber optic

Explanation Fiber optic cables offer the best protection against electromagnetic interference (EMI).

Which of the following forms of optical fiber would usually be used to connect two buildings across campus from each other, which are several kilometers apart?

Fibre Channel mode

Multimode

Single mode

Dual mode

Single mode

Explanation
In this scenario, use single mode fiber optic cables. Fiber optic is graded as single mode or multimode. Single mode consists of a single very thin core which produces fewer reflections. This provides greater effective bandwidth over greater distances. Multimode is less costly than single mode fiber. Multimode transmits multiple light rays concurrently. Multimode is used to transmit over shorter distances as the rays tend to disperse as the transmission distance increases. Fibre channel is a network topology used in storage area networks.

Which of the following are characteristics of an MT-RJ fiber optic connector? (Select two.)

They are used with multifiber fiber optic ribbon cables.

They use a nickel-plated housing.

They can be used with multimode fiber optic cables.

They use a keyed bayonet.

They must never be used with singlemode fiber-optic cables.

They use metal guide pins to ensure accurate alignment.

They can be used with multimode fiber optic cables.

They use metal guide pins to ensure accurate alignment.

Explanation
MTRJ connectors can be used with either multimode or single-mode fiber optic cabling. The connector is made from plastic and uses metal guide pins to ensure it is properly aligned in the jack.

Which of the following is true about single mode fiber optic network cabling?

It’s less expensive than multimode fiber optic cabling.

The central core is smaller than that of multimode fiber optic cabling.

The central core is composed of braided plastic or glass fibers.

It doesn’t support segment lengths as long as that supported by multimode fiber optic cabling.

It transmits multiple rays of light concurrently.

The central core is smaller than that of multimode fiber optic cabling.

Explanation
Single mode fiber optic cabling transmits a single ray (or mode) of light through glass or plastic fiber. It supports longer transmission distances than multimode fiber optic cable and is also more expensive. It also has a central core that is much smaller than that of multimode fiber
optic cabling.

Which of the following are advantages of using fiber optic cabling for a network, as opposed to other types of cabling? (Select two.)

Immunity to electromagnetic interference

Lower installation cost

Greater cable distances without a repeater

Faster installation

Immunity to electromagnetic interference

Greater cable distances without a repeater

Explanation
Compared to other types of cabling, fiber optic cabling allows greater cable distances without a
repeater and is immune to electromagnetic interference. However, installation costs more and
takes longer.

Which of the following connectors is used with fiber optic cables and connects using a twisting motion?

F-type

SC

BNC

LC

ST

ST

Explanation
The ST connector is used with fiber optic cable and uses a twist-type connector. Tip: To remember the difference between ST and SC connectors, associate the T in ST with “twist”. SC and LC connectors are used with fiber optic cables but plug in instead of twist. F-type
and BNC connectors use a twist to connect, but are used with coaxial cables.

Which of the following connectors are used with fiber optic cables and include both cables in a single connector? (Select two.)

SC

BNC

ST

MTRJ

LC

MTRJ

LC

Explanation
Both the LC and MTRJ connectors have both fiber optic cables in a single connector. ST and SC connectors hold a single strand of fiber optic cable. A cable using either connector has two connectors on each end. A BNC connector is used with coaxial cable.

Which of the following connectors usually require polishing as part of the assembly process? (Select two.)

BNC

SC

ST

IDC

AUI

SC & ST

Explanation
The fiber optic cable assembly process is more complex than other assemblies. It is necessary to polish the exposed fiber tip to ensure that light is passed on from one cable to the next with no dispersion.

Which of the following terms identifies the wiring closet in the basement or a ground floor that typically includes the demarcation point?

Smart jack

IDF

110 block

Horizontal cross connect

MDF

MDF

Explanation
The main distribution frame (MDF) is the main wiring point for a building. The MDF is typically located on the bottom floor or basement. The LEC typically installs the demarc to the MDF. An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a smaller wiring distribution point within a building. IDFs are typically located on each floor directly above the MDF, although additional IDFs can be added on each floor as necessary.
A horizontal cross connect connects wiring closets on the same floor. A smart jack is a special loopback plug installed at the demarcation point for a WAN service. Technicians at the central office can send diagnostic commands to the smart plug to test connectivity between the central office and the demarc. Use 66 and 110 blocks to connect individual wires within a wiring closet.

Which of the following methods would you use to create a crossover cable?

Use the T568B standard.

Use the T568A standard on one connector, and the BLOG convention on the other connector.

Use the T568A standard on one connector, and the T568B standard on the other connector.

Use the T568B standard on one connector, and the BLOG convention on the other connector.

Use the T568A standard.

Use the T568A standard on one connector, and the T568B standard on the other connector.

Explanation
The easiest way to create a crossover cable is to arrange the wires in the first connector using the T568A standard and arrange the wires in the second connector using the T568B standard. A crossover cable connects the transmit pins on one connector to the receive pins on the other
connector (pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6).

When using 110 blocks for connecting Cat5 and higher data cables, which recommendation should you follow?

Keep wire pairs twisted up to within one-half of an inch of the connector.

Use C5 connectors.

Connect wires using the T568B standard.

Connect wires using the T568A standard.

Keep wire pairs twisted up to within one-half of an inch of the connector.

Explanation
When using for Cat5 (or higher) wiring, be sure to preserve the twists in each wire pair to within one-half of an inch of the connecting block.
Use C4 connectors to connect four pairs of wires. When connecting data wires on a 110 block, you typically connect wires in the following order:
• White wire with a blue stripe, followed by the solid blue wire.
• White wire with an orange stripe, followed by the solid orange wire.
• White wire with a green stripe, followed by the solid green wire.
• White wire with a brown stripe, followed by the solid brown wire.
T568A and T568B are used to connect wires within an RJ45 connector when making drop cables.

You are building network cables and attaching RJ45 connectors to each end. Which tool do you need for this task?

Vampire taps

Crimping tool

Punch down tool

Needle nose pliers

Crimping tool

Explanation
You should use a crimping tool designed for RJ45 connectors to attach connectors to UTP cable.

You have a network that occupies both floors of a building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor. You have a second wiring closet on the second floor directly above the wiring closet that holds
the demarc. Which of the following terms describes the closet on the second floor?

Vertical cross connect

Demarc extension

MDF

IDF

Horizontal cross connect

IDF

Explanation
An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a smaller wiring distribution point within a building. IDFs are typically located on each floor directly above the MDF, although additional IDFs can be added on each floor as necessary. The main distribution frame (MDF) is the main wiring point for a building. The MDF is typically located on the bottom floor or basement. The LEC typically installs the demarc to the MDF. A vertical cross connect connects the MDF on the main floor to IDFs on upper floors. Cabling runs vertically (up and down) between the MDF and the IDFs. A horizontal cross connect connects IDFs on the same floor. Cabling runs horizontally (sideways) between the IDFs. A demarc extension extends the demarcation point from its original location to another location within the building.

What tool should you use to extend network services beyond the demarc?

Media certifier

Tone generator

Crimper

Punchdown tool

Punchdown tool

Explanation
A demarc is the location where the local network ends and the telephone company’s network begins. This location is usually at a punch down block in a wiring closet. You use a punchdown tool to attach wires to the punch down block.

Which of the following describes the point where the service provider’s responsibility ends and the customer’s responsibility begins for installing and maintaining wiring and equipment?

Smart jack

Punchdown block

IDF

Demarc

Vertical cross connect

Demarc

Explanation
When you contract with a local exchange carrier (LEC) for data or telephone services, they install a physical cable and a termination jack onto your premises. The demarcation point (demarc) is the line that marks the boundary between the telco equipment and the private
network or telephone system. Typically, the LEC is responsible for all equipment on one side of the demarc, and the customer is responsible for all equipment on the other side of the demarc. A smart jack is a special loopback plug installed at the demarcation point for a WAN service.
Technicians at the central office can send diagnostic commands to the smart plug to test connectivity between the central office and the demarc. A punchdown block is a block used to connect individual copper wires together. While the demarc might terminate in a punchdown
block, punchdown blocks are used within other locations at the customer site. An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a smaller wiring distribution point within a building. IDFs are typically located on each floor directly above the main distribution frame (MDF), although additional IDFs can be added on each floor as necessary. A vertical cross connect connects the IDF to the MDF on a different floor.

You are preparing to attach wires in a 110 block. You want to connect the wires and trim off the excess at the same time. Which of the following should you do? (Select two.)

Use a butt set with clips.

Use a punchdown tool with a notched blade.

Point the cut side of the tool towards the connected end of the wire.

Use a punchdown tool with a straight blade.

Use a butt set with a jack.

Point the cut side of the tool towards the wire end.

Use a punchdown tool with a notched blade.

Point the cut side of the tool towards the wire end.

Explanation
Use a punchdown tool to connect wires to a 110 or 66 block. When using a punchdown tool, choose the right blade for the job:
• Use a notched blade for a 110 block.
• Use a straight blade for a 66 block.
• For both blade types, you can use the end without a cutting blade if you want to punch down without cutting the wire. When using the cutting blade, point the cut side of the punchdown tool towards the wire end that you want to trim.

You are making Ethernet drop cables using Cat5e cable and RJ45 connectors. You need to remove the plastic coating over the cable to expose the individual wires. Which tool should you use?

Snips

Punchdown tool

Butt set

Cable stripper

Cable stripper

Explanation
Use a cable stripper to remove the plastic covering for a cable. Note: When making drop cables or using punchdown blocks, do not remove the plastic covering for individual wires. Use snips to cut cables. Use a punchdown tool to push wires into 66 or 110 blocks and cut wires at the same time. Use a butt set to connect to phone lines to monitor, make, or answer phone calls.

You have a network that occupies the top floor of a three story building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor. What would you use to relocate the WAN line into a wiring closet on your floor?

Horizontal cross connect

Demarc extension

66 block

Smart jack

110 block

Demarc extension

Explanation
A demarc extension extends the demarcation point from its original location to another location within the building. The demarc extension typically consists of a single wire bundle that attaches to the existing demarc and supplies a termination point to a different location. You
might need a demarc extension if your network occupies an upper floor of a building. The LEC will typically install the demarc into the MDF on the bottom floor, and you will need to install an extension to place the demarc into the IDF on your floor. A horizontal cross connect connects IDFs on the same floor. Cabling runs horizontally (sideways) between the IDFs. A smart jack is a special loopback plug installed at the demarcation point for a WAN service. Technicians at the central office can send diagnostic commands to the smart plug to test connectivity between the central office and the demarc. Use 66 and 110 blocks to connect individual wires within a wiring closet. These blocks can be used to connect devices to the WAN service wiring, but are not typically used for installing a demarc extension.

You have a network that occupies all three floors of a building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor. You have a wiring closet on the two remaining floors directly above the wiring closet on the main floor. What would you use to connect the wiring closets together?

Demarc extension

Horizontal cross connect

Vertical cross connect

Smart jack

Vertical cross connect

Explanation
A vertical cross connect connects the main distribution frame (MDF) on the main floor to intermediate distribution frames (IDFs) on upper floors. Cabling runs vertically (up and down) between the MDF and the IDFs. A horizontal cross connect connects IDFs on the same floor. Cabling runs horizontally (sideways) between the IDFs. A smart jack is a special loopback plug installed at the demarcation point for a WAN service. Technicians at the central office can send diagnostic commands to the smart plug to test connectivity between the central office and the demarc. A demarc extension extends the demarcation point from its original location to another location within the building. The demarc extension typically consists of a single wire bundle that attaches to the existing demarc and supplies a termination point to a different location. You might need a demarc extension if your network occupies an upper floor of a building. The LEC will typically install the demarc into the MDF on the bottom floor, and you will need to install an extension to place the demarc into the IDF on your floor.

Which pins in an RJ45 connector are used to transmit data when used on a 100BaseT Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

Pin 1
Pin 2
Pin 3
Pin 4
Pin 5
Pin 6
Pin 7
Pin 8

Pin 1 & Pin 2

Explanation
On a 100BaseT network cable, the RJ45 pinouts are as follows:
• Pin 1: Tx+
• Pin 2: Tx-
•Pin 3: Rx+
• Pin 4: Unused
• Pin 5: Unused
• Pin 6: Rx-
•Pin 7: Unused
• Pin 8: Unused

You want to use the T568A standard for adding connectors to your Cat5 cable. Starting with pin 1, which order should you use for the wires within the connector?

White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown

White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown

White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown

White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown

Explanation
The T568A standard uses the following order of wires in the connector: White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown. The T568B standard switches the orange and green wires (along with their corresponding white wires). Use the order Blue-Orange-Green-Brown (BLOG), with the white wire first, for connecting wires on a 110 punchdown block.

Which of the following uses metal clips placed over plastic slots for connecting individual copper wires?

25 pair

66 block

100 pair

110 block

110 block

Explanation
A 110 block is a punchdown block that uses metal clips fitted over plastic pins. When connecting wires using a 110 block, place the wires in the plastic slots, attach the metal clip, then punch down the connecting cable on the top of the clip. A 66 block uses metal pins for connecting wires. Wires are placed in the pins, and pins within a row are electrically connected. 25 pair and 100 pair are cable bundles that include multiple pairs of copper wires (either 25 pairs of wires or 100 pairs of wires).

You are connecting Cat5e cables to a 110 block. In what order should you connect the wires to follow standard wiring conventions?

White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown

White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown

White/brown, brown, white/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green

White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown

Explanation
When connecting data wires on a 110 block, you typically connect wires in the following order:
• White wire with a blue stripe, followed by the solid blue wire.
• White wire with an orange stripe, followed by the solid orange wire.
• White wire with a green stripe, followed by the solid green wire.
• White wire with a brown stripe, followed by the solid brown wire.

Tip: Use BLOG (blue-orange-green) to remember the wire order, and remember to start with the white striped wire first.

When adding RJ45 connectors to a drop cable, use one of the following orders, based on the standard you want to follow:
• T568A- To use this standard, arrange the wires from pins 1 to 8 in each connector in the following order: GW, G, OW, B, BW, O, BrW, Br.
• T568B- To use this standard, arrange the wires from pins 1 to 8 in each connector in the following order: OW, O, GW, B, BW, G, BrW, Br.

You are working with 25 pair wires and 66 blocks. You have pushed the wires onto the 66 block, but now need to cut off the excess end of each wire. Which tool should you use?

Snips

Butt set

Cable stripper

Punchdown tool

Punchdown tool

Explanation
Use a punchdown tool to push wires into 66 or 110 blocks and cut wires at the same time. The punchdown tool has a blade on one side the cuts off the excess wires. Use snips to cut cables or wires. However, a punchdown tool would be easier to use for this task than wire snips. Use a cable stripper to remove the plastic covering for a cable. Note: When making drop cables or using punchdown blocks, do not remove the plastic covering for individual wires. Use a butt set to connect to phone lines to monitor, make, or answer phone calls.

Which of the following is used to terminate individual wires from a 25 pair or 100 pair cable using female RJ45 ports?

66 block

110 block

Patch panel

Horizontal cross connect

Patch panel

Explanation
A patch panel is a device that typically connects individual stranded wires into female RJ45 connectors. For example, you might connect 4 pairs of wires from a punchdown block to a port on the patch panel. On the patch panel, you then connect drop cables (cables with RJ45
connectors) to the patch panel on one end and a computer on the other end. Use 66 and 110 blocks to connect individual wires within a wiring closet. These punchdown blocks connect the individual wires together, but do not terminate in RJ45 connectors. A horizontal cross connect connects IDFs on the same floor.

You want to use the T568B standard for adding connectors to your Cat5 cable. Starting with pin 1, which order should you use for the wires within the connector?

White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown

White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown

White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown

White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

Explanation
The T568B standard uses the following order of wires in the connector: White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown.

The T568A standard switches the green and orange wires (along with their corresponding white wires). Use the order Blue-Orange-Green-Brown
(BLOG), with the white wire first, for connecting wires on a 110 punchdown block.

You have a network that occupies all three floors of a building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor. You have a second wiring closet on the main floor. You need to connect the two wiring closets.
Which of the following are typically used to connect the two wiring closets? (Select two.)

Demarc extension

25 pair

Horizontal cross connect

Smart jack

Vertical cross connect

25 pair

Horizontal cross connect

Explanation
A horizontal cross connect connects wiring closets on the same floor. 25 pair or 100 pair wiring punched down into 66 or 110 blocks are often used to connect the wiring closets together. A vertical cross connect connects the IDF to the MDF on a different floor. The demarcation point (demarc) is the line that marks the boundary between the telco equipment and the private network or telephone system. A demarc extension extends the demarcation point from its original location to another location within the building. A smart jack is a special loopback plug installed at the demarcation point for a WAN service. Technicians at the central office can send diagnostic commands to the smart plug to test connectivity between the central office and the demarc.

A host wants to send a message to another host with the IP address 115.99.80.157. IP does not know the hardware address of the destination device. Which protocol can be used to discover the MAC address?

DNS

IGMP

BOOTP

DHCP

ARP

ICMP

ARP

Explanation
Hosts use the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover the hardware address of a host.

Which of the following is a valid MAC address?

95ABC2F4.ABC5.569D.43BF

AB.07.CF.62.16.BD

FABC.875E.9BG6

145.65.254.10

AB.07.CF.62.16.BD

Explanation
MAC addresses are comprised of 12 hexadecimal digits (ranging from 09 and AF). They are typically represented as a three sets of four hexadecimal digits or six sets of two hexadecimal digits separated with periods. Regardless of the grouping and separator values, look for 12 hex digits for a valid MAC address.

What device sends signals from a computer onto a network?

Router

Transceiver

Cable

Gateway

Transceiver

Explanation
A transceiver (short for transmitter/receiver) sends signals to and receives signals from the network. It translates the parallel data stream of the computer to the serial data stream of the network and vice versa. Most transceivers are now built into network interface cards (NICs).

Which of the following is true about the MAC address? (Select two.)

It is typically represented by octets of decimal numbers between 0255.

It is a 32-bit address.

It is a 64-bit address.

It is a 48-bit address.

It is typically represented by hexadecimal numbers.

It is a 48-bit address.

It is typically represented by hexadecimal numbers.

Explanation
The MAC address identifies the physical address of the network adapter. The MAC address is a 12-digit (48-bit) hexadecimal number (each number ranges from 09 or AF). The address is often written as 00B0D006BCAC or 00B0.D006.BCAC, although dashes, periods, and
colons can be used to divide the MAC address parts. An IPv4 address is 32bits and uses octets of decimal numbers between 0255. An IPv6 address is a 64-bit address that uses 32 hexadecimal numbers.

Which network component connects a device with the transmission media and allows it to send and receive messages?

Client

Network interface card

Peripheral

Protocol

Server

Network interface card

Explanation
The network interface card (NIC) allows a device to send and receive messages over the transmission media.

Which of the following is a valid MAC address?

73-99-12-61-15

192.168.12.15

34-9A-86-1G-B3-24

C0-34-FF-15-01-8E

255.255.255.0

83-5A-5B-0B-31-55-F1

C0-34-FF-15-01-8E

Explanation
A MAC or hardware address is a unique identifier hard coded on every network adapter card. A valid MAC address has a total of 12 hexadecimal numbers. Hexadecimal numbers contain the numbers 0 to 9 and the letters A to F. Valid values in a MAC address range anywhere from 00 to FF. Note that one of the answers would be a valid MAC address except it uses a G value, which is beyond the range of a hexadecimal number.

At which OSI model layer does a media converter operate?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 1

Explanation
A media converter operates at the OSI model layer 1 (Physical layer). The media converter translates frames into bits and transmits them on the transmission medium. At layer 2, the MAC address is added to make the data into a frame. At layer 3, the IP address is added to the packet. A media converter does not alter or use the MAC address or the IP address.

You have a server that has a 100BaseFX network interface card that you need to connect to a switch. The switch only has 100BaseTX switch ports. Which device should you use?

Gateway

Bridge

Media converter

Hub

Repeater

Media converter

Explanation
Use a media converter to convert from one media type to another media type within the same architecture. Use a bridge to connect two devices that use different network architectures, for example to connect a wired network to wireless clients. A hub or a repeater connect devices using the same media type.

What type of module might a switch use to allow it to modify the media type supported by a switch port? (Select two.)

MPLS

GBIC

OCx

SFP

GBIC & SFP

Explanation
Older network adapters used an external transceiver that matched the media type. While nearly all current network adapters come with a built in transceiver type, new devices, such as switches and routers, use transceiver modules that allow you to modify the media type of a
port by changing the transceiver. Transceiver modules include the following:

• A GBIC (gigabit interface converter) is a larger sized transceiver that fits in a port slot and is used for Gigabit media including copper and fiber optic.
• An SFP (small formfactor pluggable) is similar to a GBIC but with a smaller size. An SFP is sometimes called a miniGBIC.
• An XFP transceiver is similar in size to an SFP but is used for 10 Gigabit networking.

Which of the following statements accurately describes how a modem works? (Select two.)

It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.

It communicates over a telephone network using digital signals.

It transmits digital signals over ordinary telephone copper wiring at a rate up to 128 Kbps.

It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data.

It demodulates analog PC data into digital data that can be transmitted through a telephone network.

It modulates digital data from a telephone network into analog data that a PC can use.

It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.

It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data.

Explanation
Modem is shorthand for modulator/demodulator. Its job is to convert (or modulate) digital data from a PC into analog telephone signals and transmit them through a telephone network. It also receives analog data from the telephone network and converts (or demodulates) it into
digital PC data.

Which three of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model?

Routers

Bridges

Switches

Repeaters

Network interface cards (NICs)

Hubs

Bridges, Switches & NICs

Explanation
Network interface cards (NICs), bridges, and switches all operate at the OSI Data Link layer. They use the physical device address (MAC address) to identify packets. Hubs and repeaters operate at the Physical layer they simply repeat packets without regard to addresses. Routers
function at the Network layer they examine the logical device and network address to perform routing tasks.

Which of the following hardware devices regenerates a signal out all connected ports without examining the frame or packet contents? (Select two.)

Bridge

Hub

Repeater

Switch

Gateway

Router

Hub & Repeater

Explanation
A hub and a repeater send received signals out all other ports. These devices do not examine the frame or the packet contents. A switch or a bridge use the MAC address in a frame for forwarding decisions. A router uses the IP address in a packet for forwarding decisions.

Which of the following best describes how a switch functions?

It connects multiple segments of different architectures. It translates frames, and forwards them to the appropriate segment.

It connects multiple segments of different architectures. It translates frames, and broadcasts them to all of its ports.

It connects multiple cable segments (or devices), and forwards frames to the appropriate segment.

It connects multiple cable segments (or devices), and broadcasts frames to all of its ports.

It connects multiple cable segments (or devices), and forwards frames to the appropriate segment.

Explanation
Switches have multiple ports and can connect multiple segments or devices. The switch forwards frames to the appropriate port. They function similarly to a hub, except instead of sending packets to all ports, switches send packets only to the destination computer’s port.

A switch is associated with which OSI model layer?

Transport

Network

Data Link

Physical

Data Link

Explanation
Switches are associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. Switches examine the device address in the packet and forward messages directly to that device.

How do switches and bridges learn where devices are located on a network?

When a frame enters a port, the destination IP address is copied from the frame header.

When a frame enters a port, the source IP address is copied from the frame header.

When a frame enters a port, the source MAC address is copied from the frame header.

When a frame enters a port, the destination MAC address is copied from frame header.

When a frame enters a port, the source MAC address is copied from the frame header.

Explanation
Bridges and switches learn addresses by copying the MAC address of the source device and placing it into the MAC address table. The port number which the frame entered is also recorded in the table and associated with the source MAC address. The switch or the bridge cannot record the destination MAC address because it does not know the port that is used to reach the destination device. Bridges and switches operate at Layer 2 and do not use IP addresses (which exist at Layer 3).

An access point that conforms to the IEEE 802.11b standard acts most closely to what other networking device?

Router

Gateway

Hub

Terminal

Patch bay

Hub

Explanation
An access point functions like a hub by connecting multiple wireless hosts to a wired Ethernet network.

At which layer of the OSI model do hubs operate?

Data Link

Internet

Physical

Layer 3

Physical

Explanation
Hubs operate at layer 1, or the Physical layer of the OSI model.

Your company purchases a new bridge, which filters packets based on the MAC address of the destination computer. On which layer of the OSI model is this device functioning?

Data Link

Transport

Presentation

Session

Data Link

Explanation
The bridge is operating at the Data Link layer.

Which of the following devices operate at OSI model layer 2? (Select two.)

Network interface card

Firewall

Switch

Hub

Repeater

Router

Switch & Network interface card

Explanation
A network interface card and a switch operate at layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. Layer 2 includes protocols that define the MAC address. The MAC address is burned into the network interface card, and a switch uses the MAC address to make forwarding decisions. A hub or a repeater operate at layer 1? they regenerate a signal without looking at layer 2 or layer 3 information. A router operates at layer 3, using the IP address to make forwarding decisions. A firewall operates at layer 3 or higher, using packet or data contents for making
filtering decisions.

An 8-port switch receives a frame on port number 1. The frame is addressed to an unknown device. What will the switch do?

Send the frame out the destination port.

Drop the frame.

Send the frame out ports 2-8.

Send the frame out all 8 ports.

Send the frame out ports 2-8.

Explanation
Because the switch does not know the port that is used to reach the destination device, it will send the frame out all ports except for the port on which the frame was received. After the switch learns the port that is used to reach the destination device, it will send the frame out
only that port.

Which of the following devices is used on a LAN and offers guaranteed bandwidth to each port?

Router

Bridge

Switch

Switch

Explanation
A switch offers guaranteed bandwidth to each port.

Which of the following is the best device to deploy to protect your private network from a public untrusted network?

Firewall

Gateway

Hub

Router

Firewall

Explanation
A firewall is the best device to deploy to protect your private network from a public untrusted network. Firewalls are used to control traffic entering and leaving your trusted network environment. Firewalls can manage traffic based on source or destination IP address, port
number, service protocol, application or service type, user account, and even traffic content. Routers offer some packet based access control, but not as extensive as that of a full-fledged firewall. Hubs and gateways are not sufficient for managing the interface between a trusted and an untrusted network.

You are the network administrator for a small organization. Recently, you contracted with an ISP to connect your organization’s network to the Internet to provide users with Internet access. Since doing so, it has come to your attention that an intruder has invaded your network
from the Internet on three separate occasions. What type of network hardware should you implement to prevent this from happening again?

Proxy server

Switch

Hub

Firewall

CSU/DSU

Router

Firewall

Explanation
The role of a firewall is to provide a barrier between an organization’s network and a public network, such as the Internet. Its job is to prevent unauthorized access into the organization’s private network. To do this, the firewall examines incoming packets and determines whether
they should be allowed to enter based on a set of rules defined by the network administrator.

At what OSI layer does a router operate to forward network messages?

Network

Session

Physical

Data Link

Transport

Network

Explanation
A router uses the logical network address specified at the Network layer to forward messages to the appropriate LAN segment. A bridge, on the other hand, uses the MAC address and works at the Data Link layer.

Which of the following hardware devices links multiple networks and directs traffic between networks?

Repeater

Router

Bridge

Hub

Router

Explanation
A router is a device that links multiple networks and directs traffic between networks. Each network linked by routers has its own unique identifier called the “network number” or”network address.”

At which of the following OSI layers does a router operate?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 3

Explanation
A router operates at layer 3, or the Network layer.

You are the administrator of your company’s network. You want to prevent unauthorized access to your intranet from the Internet. Which of the following should you implement?

Proxy server

Packet Internet Groper

ICS

Firewall

Firewall

Explanation
A firewall allows you to filter unwanted traffic from the Internet to your network. Packet Internet Groper is better known by its acronym, PING, a TCP/IP command. A proxy server caches web pages. ICS allows you to connect a small network to the Internet through a single
connection.

Which two of the following tasks do routers perform?

Control access to the transmission media

Identify devices through hardware addresses

Maintain information about paths through an internetwork

Multiplex signals onto the same transmission media

Route data based on logical network addresses

Route data based on hardware device addresses

Maintain information about paths through an internetwork

Route data based on logical network addresses

Explanation
Routers build and maintain tables of routes through an internetwork, and deliver data between networks based on logical network addresses.

A network is connected following the IEEE 802.3 specifications. Which of the following best describes when a device can transmit messages?

The device is notified of its turn to send messages.

The device requests permission from a controlling device.

The device with the token can use the transmission media.

The device transmits whenever it is ready.

The device listens to determine if the transmission media is free.

The device listens to determine if the transmission media is free.

Explanation
The IEEE 802.3 committee describes the CSMA/CD media access method. Devices listen to the network to determine if the transmission media is free before transmitting.

Which of the following connectors is used with Ethernet 10BaseT networks?

RJ11

RJ45

15-pin

D-shell

BNC

RJ45

Explanation
RJ45 connectors are used with Ethernet 10-BaseT networks.

The media access control method of all Ethernet networks is __________.

CSMA/CD

CSMA/CA

Polling

Token passing

CSMA/CD

Explanation
Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is the media access control method of all Ethernet networks.

Which of the following physical topologies are used with Ethernet networks? (Select two.)

Mesh

Star

Bus

Ring

Bus & Star

Explanation
Ethernet networks use either a physical bus or physical star topology. Hubs can also be cascaded to form a tree topology.

Which of the following use the CSMA/CD access method? Select all that apply.

Token Ring

1000BaseT

10BaseT

FDDI

1000BaseT

10BaseT

Explanation
CSMA/CD stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection. It defines the steps network devices take when two devices attempt to use a data channel simultaneously. Ethernet networks use CSMA/CD, including 10BaseT, 10Base2 and 1000BaseT.

You would like to implement 10 Gbps Ethernet over a distance of at least 10 kilometers. Which of the following would meet the requirement for this implementation? (Select three.)

10GBaseER standards

10GBaseLR standards

Multimode fiber

Single mode fiber

10GBaseSR standards

Single mode fiber

10GBaseER standards

10GBaseLR standards

Explanation
For 10 Gbps Ethernet at distances of 10 kilometers or more, use singlemode fiber optic cable. 10GBaseLR (up to 10 km) and 10GBaseER (up to 40 km) both support 10 Gbps single mode fiber. Multimode fiber is cheaper but has a shorter maximum distance than single mode fiber.
10GBaseSR uses multimode fiber at distances up to 300 meters.

With an Ethernet 10BaseT network, the maximum cable length between a computer and the hub is:

100 meters

100 feet

500 feet

185 meters

100 meters

Explanation
With an Ethernet 10BaseT network, the maximum cable length between a computer and the
hub is 100 meters.

Which of the following Ethernet standards uses fiber optic cabling? (Select two.)

1000BaseCX

100BaseT4

100BaseFX

100BaseTX

1000BaseLX

100BaseFX

1000BaseLX

Explanation
100BaseFX and 1000BaseLX are Ethernet standards that use fiberoptic.
Following the Ethernet naming conventions:
• F designates fiberoptic cables. Ethernet standards with the F designation are 10BaseFL and 100BaseFX.
• L designates “long” distances and requires fiberoptic to support the distance. Ethernet standards with the L designation are 10BaseFL, 1000BaseLX, and 10GBaseLR.
• S designates “short” distances that use fiberoptic cables. Ethernet standards with the S designation are 1000BaseSX and 10GBaseSR.
• T designates twisted pair cables. Ethernet standards with the T designation are 10BaseT, 100BaseTX, 100BaseT4, and 1000BaseT.
• C designates copper cables. The 1000BaseCX standard is for fast Ethernet at short distances within wiring closets.

You are planning a network for an educational campus. Due to the size of the buildings and the distance between them, you have elected to use 10BaseFL hubs, cabling, and network interface cards. What is the maximum length for the network cable between a workstation and a hub?

550 meters

1000 meters

220 meters

100 meters

412 meters

2000 meters

2000 meters

Explanation
The maximum length for a 10BaseFL network segment is 2000 meters (2 km). Because a 10baseFL network uses a physical star topology, a segment is defined as one of the arms of the star, (between the hub and a host). That means the fiberoptic cable between the hub and a workstation can be up to 2000 meters long. 100BaseFX supports up to 412 meters. 1000BaseSX and 1000BaseLX support up to 550 meters. 100 meters is the maximum twisted pair cable length.

Which of the following standards is used by SONET?

10GBaseER

1000BaseSX

1000BaseLX

1000BaseCX

10GBaseLW

10GBaseLW

Explanation
10GBase standards ending in W are used for SONET implementations. These include 10GBaseSW (short), 10GBaseLW (long), and 10GBaseEW (extended). 10GBaseER is for extended fiber optic but not used with SONET. 1000Base standards are not used for SONET. 1000BaseCX is a copper cable specification.

What type of cabling is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?

Type 1A STP or Category 5 UTP

Type 5 STP or Category 1 UTP

Category 3 UTP, Category 4 UTP, or Category 5 UTP

None of the above

Type 1A STP or Category 5 UTP

Explanation
Either Type 1A STP or category 5 UTP can be used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks.

Your network follows the 100BaseFX specifications for Fast Ethernet, and uses halfduplex cable. What is the maximum cable segment length allowed?

100 meters

412 meters

550 meters

1,000 meters

2,000 meters

412 meters

Explanation
For 100BaseFX, halfduplex, multimode cable has a maximum segment length of 412 meters. 1000BaseSX and 1000BaseLX support multimode cable up to 550 meters. 10BaseFL supports fiber optic cable between 1,000 and 2,000 meters.

You have been tasked with designing a highspeed Ethernet network. Your client’s building already has 150ohm shielded twisted pair (STP) wiring installed. Due to budget constraints, they have asked you to reuse the existing wiring instead of installing new fiberoptic cabling. Which Ethernet standard could you implement in this situation?

1000BaseZX

10BaseFL

1000BaseLX

1000BaseCX

1000BaseT

1000BaseSX

1000BaseCX

Explanation
The 1000BaseCX standard specifies 150ohm STP cabling. The maximum cable length is 25 meters. The 10BaseFL, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseLX, and 1000BaseZX standards employ fiberoptic cabling. 1000BaseT uses Category 5 UTP instead of STP cabling.

What topology is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks? (Select two.)

Physical star/logical bus

Physical star/logical ring

Physical star/logical star

Physical ring/logical star

Physical star/logical bus

Physical star/logical star

Explanation
100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks use a physical star/logical bus topology when a hub is used or a physical star/logical star when a switch is used.

You are working on upgrading the network in an older building. Over the years, the building has had several types of networking cable installed. The network must support 1000 Mbps Ethernet. You would like to minimize the cost of the upgrade by replacing cables only if
necessary. Which types of cable must be replaced to support the required network speed? (Select two.)

Cat 3

Cat 4

Cat 5

Cat 5e

Cat 6

Cat 6e

Cat 3 & Cat 4

Explanation
1000 Mbps Ethernet (Gigabit Ethernet) requires at least Cat 5 cables. While Cat 5 supports 1000 Mbps, it can have poor performance during high-data transfers. Whenever possible, it is best to use a higher grade cable (Cat 5e or Cat 6) if you want 1000 Mbps data transmission.
Cat 3 only supports 10 Mbps Ethernet. Cat 5e or Cat 6 is required for 10 Gbps Ethernet.

Ethernet 100BaseFX networks use what type of cabling?

Unshielded twisted pair

Fiber optic

Shielded twisted pair

Coaxial

Fiber optic

Explanation
Ethernet 100BaseFX networks use fiber optic cabling.

Which Gigabit Ethernet standard can support long network segments up to a maximum of 5 km when used with fiberoptic cable?

1000BaseSX

1000BaseLX

1000BaseT

1000BaseCX

1000BaseLX

Explanation
1000BaseLX supports segment lengths of up to 5 km when used with fiber-optic cable. This maximum segment length is cut to 550 m when fiber-optic cable is used and it operates in half-duplex. 1000BaseSX supports segment lengths of only 550 meters. 1000BaseCX uses copper wire and supports segment lengths of only 25 meters. 1000BaseT uses twisted pair cables.

Which Gigabit Ethernet standard uses fiberoptic cabling and supports network segments up to a maximum of 550 meters long?

1000BaseT

1000BaseZX

1000BaseCX

1000BaseSX

1000BaseSX

Explanation
The 1000BaseSX standard uses fiberoptic cable with a maximum segment length of 550 meters. However, to implement segments this long, you must use 50 micron, 500MHz/km fiber optic cable. Other types of cable will shorten the maximum segment length. 1000BaseFX also
supports lengths up to 550 meters. 1000BaseFX supports distances up to 10 kilometers. 1000BaseZX has a maximum segment length of up to 100 km. 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseT use copper cabling instead of fiberoptic.

You want to implement an Ethernet network at very long distances using fiber optic cables. Which standard and cable type would you choose? (Select two.)

1000BaseLX

Single mode fiber

1000BaseCX

Mutimode fiber

1000BaseSX

1000BaseLX

Single mode fiber

Explanation
Of the standards listed in this question, 1000BaseLX provides the greatest cable length (think of the “L” in 1000BaseLX as “long”). When using long distances for fiber optic, use single mode fiber. Multimode fiber is cheaper but has a shorter maximum distance than single mode fiber. 1000BaseSX is for short fiber optic, and 1000BaseCX uses short copper within a wiring closet.

You have been tasked with designing an Ethernet network. Your client needs to implement a very highspeed network backbone between campus buildings? some of which are around 300 m apart. Fiberoptic cabling has already been installed between buildings. Your client has
asked that you use the existing cabling that operates in fullduplex. Which Ethernet standard meets these guidelines? (Choose two.)

1000BaseSX

1000BaseT

10GBaseSR

10BaseFL

1000BaseCX

1000BaseSX

10GBaseSR

Explanation
10GBaseSR and 1000BaseSX can operate within these parameters. Both will support segment lengths 300 meters long and operate using full-duplex. 10BaseFL isn’t a good choice because its data transmission rate is relatively slow. 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseT both use copper wiring.

Which of the following are requirements of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standards? (Select three.)

SC or ST connectors

RJ45 connectors

Fiber optic cable

CAT 5 cabling

The cable length must be less than or equal to 100m

The cable length must be less than or equal to 1000m

RJ45 connectors

CAT 5 cabling

The cable length must be less than or equal to 100m

Explanation
Gigabit Ethernet (1000BaseT) has similar requirements to 100BaseT with connectors, cabling,
and distances. The network cards are simply designed to transfer data ten times as fast.

Your network follows the 100BaseTx specifications for Fast Ethernet. What is the maximum cable segment length allowed?

500 meters

1,000 meters

412 meters

2,000 meters

100 meters

100 meters

Explanation
Fast Ethernet using twisted pair cables (either 100BaseT4 or 100BaseTx) has a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters. Tip: All Ethernet networks that use twisted pair cable (Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet) have a distance limitation of 100 meters.

You have purchased a new router that you need to configure. You need to connect a workstation to the router’s console port to complete the configuration tasks. Which type of cable would you most likely use?

RG6

Straight-through

Crossover

Rollover

Rollover

Explanation
Use a rollover cable to connect a workstation to the console port of a router or a switch. The rollover cable has an RJ45
connector on one end to connect to the console port, and a serial connector on the other end to connect to the serial port of the workstation. You then run a terminal emulation program on the workstation to connect to the console of the router or switch to perform configuration and management tasks. Use a straight-through or crossover Ethernet cable to connect devices using the Ethernet RJ45
ports. An RG6 cable is a coaxial cable.

You have two switches that you need to connect using their uplink ports. The switches do not support auto-MDI. Which type of cable should you use?

Straight-through

Loopback

Crossover

Rollover

Crossover

Explanation
Use a crossover cable to connect two switches through their uplink ports, or to connect the two switches through regular ports. Use a straight-through cable to connect the uplink port on one switch to a regular port on another switch. Use a rollover cable to connect a workstation to the console port of the switch. Use a loopback plug connected to a single port for troubleshooting.

You want to connect the LAN port on a router to the uplink port on a switch. The switch does not support auto-MDI. Which type of cable should you use?

Crossover

Rollover

Straight-through

Loopback

Crossover

Explanation
Use a crossover cable to connect a workstation or a router to the uplink port on a switch. Use a straight-through cable to connect the router to a regular switch port. Use a rollover cable to connect a workstation to the console port of a router. Use a loopback plug to allow a device
to communicate with itself through its own network adapter.

You need to transfer data from one laptop to another and would like to use an Ethernet cable. You do not have a hub or a switch.
Which type of cable should you use?

Loopback

Crossover

Straight-through

Rollover

Crossover

Explanation
Use a crossover cable to connect two devices together in a back-to-back configuration. Use a straight-through cable to connect a workstation to a hub or switch port. Use a rollover cable to connect a workstation to the console port of a router or a switch. Use a loopback plug to allow a device to communicate with itself through its own network adapter.

Which of the following standards is typically used in a rollover cable?

RS-232

RG-58

RG-6

R-J11

RS-232

Explanation
A rollover cable has a serial connector on one end and an RJ-45 connector on the other end. RS-232 is the standard for serial communications. RJ-11 connectors are used for analog telephone lines. RG-6 and RG-58 are coaxial cable standards.

You need to connect a workstation to a switch using a regular port on the switch (not an uplink port). The switch does not support auto-MDI. Which type of cable should you use?

Straight-through

Crossover

Loopback

Rollover

Straight-through

Explanation
Use a straight-through cable to connect a workstation or router to a regular switch port. Use a crossover cable to connect the workstation to the uplink port. Use a rollover cable to connect the workstation to the console port of the switch. Use a loopback plug to allow a workstation to communicate with itself through its own network adapter.

Which of the following connectors is typically used on one end of a rollover cable?

ST

BNC

F-type

Serial

LC

SC

Serial

Explanation
A rollover cable has a serial connector on one end and an RJ45 connector on the other end. Alternatively, it might have an RJ45 connector on both ends, and a serial converter is used to convert from the RJ45 connector to a serial connector. BNC and F-type connectors are used with coaxial cables. ST, SC, and LC connectors are used with fiber optic cables.

You want to create a rollover cable that has an RJ45 connector on both ends. How should you connect the wires within the connectors?

Connect pin 1 to pin 8, pin 2 to pin 7, pin 3 to pin 6, and pin 4 to pin 5.

Use the T568A standard on one end and the T568B standard on the other end.

Connect each pin on one end to the same pin on the other end (i.e. pin 1 with pin 1, pin 2 with pin 2, etc.).

Connect pin 1 with pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6.

Connect pin 1 to pin 8, pin 2 to pin 7, pin 3 to pin 6, and pin 4 to pin 5.

Explanation
When terminated with an RJ45 connector on both ends, the wires within the connectors are rolled over to the opposite connector as follows:
• Pin 1 is connected to pin 8
• Pin 2 is connected to pin 7
• Pin 3 is connected to pin 6
• Pin 4 is connected to pin 5
A crossover cable uses the T568A standard on one end and the T568B standard on the other end. The crossover cable connects pin 1 with pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6. Connecting each pin to the same pin on the other end creates a straight-through cable.

Which three of the following IP addresses are Class C addresses?

222.55.0.0

240.0.0.0

189.189.5.2

192.15.5.55

125.166.11.0

223.16.5.0

222.55.0.0

192.15.5.55

223.16.5.0

Explanation
The following are Class C addresses: 192.15.5.55, 222.55.0.0, and 223.16.5.0. The first octet of Class C addresses is in the range of 192 to 223.

In an IP addressing scheme using default subnet masks, which of the following IP addresses can you assign to a host?

127.0.0.1

199.45.207.0

127.35.88.92

132.70.254.15

132.70.254.15

Explanation
Addresses starting with 127 are reserved and cannot be assigned to hosts. The address 199.45.207.0 is a network ID, and is therefore not assigned to a host.

You manage a subnet that uses the following subnet address: 198.162.1.0/23. Which of the following best describes how addressing is configured for the subnet?

Supernetting

Private

Subnetting

Classful

Supernetting

Explanation
The subnet address 198.162.1.0/23 is an example of a supernetted address. With supernetting, multiple smaller subnets are combined into a single larger subnet. Supernetting is performed by taking the default subnet mask and making it smaller (using less bits). For this address, the default subnet mask uses 24 bits (255.255.255.0). With supernetting, the mask is altered to use only 23 bits (255.255.254.0) to combine multiple subnets together. Subnetting is the process of dividing a larger network into smaller networks. With the subnet address in this example, a subnetted address would use a larger subnet mask (using more bits). A subnetted address might use 25 bits (255.255.255.128) or more to subdivide the network into multiple smaller subnets. Sometimes the term subnetting can be used to refer to both subnetting and supernetting, but in this example, supernetting better describes what is being done. Classful addressing uses the default subnet mask based on the address class. If classful addressing were used, the subnet would use a 24 bit mask. Private addresses are within the following ranges:
• 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.254
• 172.16.0.1 to 172.31.255.254
• 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.255.254

Consider the following IP addresses.

1. 124.77.8.5
2. 131.11.0.9
3. 190.66.250.10
4. 196.5.89.44

Which list represents the IP address class of each listed IP address?

Class A, Class B, Class B, Class C

Class B, Class B, Class C, Class D

Class B, Class B, Class C, Class C

Class A, Class B, Class C, Class C

Class A, Class B, Class C, Class C

Class B, Class C, Class C, Class D

Class A, Class B, Class B, Class C

Explanation
The IP addresses listed are of the following classes: Class A, Class B, Class B, Class C. You can identify the IP address class by memorizing the range of values for the first octet.
• 0-126 = Class A
• 128-191 = Class B
• 192-223 = Class C
• 223-239 = Class D
• 240-255 = Class E

Which of the following is the last IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 166.70.0.0 network using the default subnet mask?

166.70.0.255

166.70.0.254

166.71.0.0

166.70.255.255

166.70.255.254

166.70.255.254

Explanation
The last address you can assign to hosts on the 166.70.0.0 network is 166.70.255.254. The network address is a Class B address and uses a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. The last two octets are used for host addresses. 166.70.0.0 cannot be used as a host address because it is the network address. 166.70.255.255 cannot be used as a host address because it is the broadcast address.

A host on the network has an IP address of 129.11.99.78 using the default subnet mask. How would you identify the address and mask using CIDR notation?

129.11.99.78/24

129.11.99.78/16

129.11.99.78/8

129.11.99.78:8

129.11.99.78:24

129.11.99.78:16

129.11.99.78/16

Explanation
Use 129.11.99.78/16 for the address and the mask. With CIDR notation, follow the IP address with a slash (/) and the number of bits in the mask. The default subnet mask for this address is 255.255.0.0 which uses 16 bits in the mask.A mask value of 255.0.0.0 uses 8 bits, and a mask value of 255.255.255.0 uses 24 bits.

Your network has been assigned the Class C network address of 200.78.151.0. Which three of the following addresses can be assigned to hosts on your network?

200.78.151.0

200.78.151.111

200.78.151.257

200.78.151.12

200.78.152.14

200.78.151.252

200.78.151.255

200.78.151.111
200.78.151.12
200.78.151.252

Explanation
All hosts on this network must share the first three octets of the IP address (200.78.151). Youcannot assign 200.78.151.0 to a host because this address indicates the address of the network. You cannot assign 200.78.151.255 because this address is reserved for the broadcast address.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of using subnets?

Subnets let you connect a private network to the Internet.

Subnets place each device within its own collision domain.

Subnets combine multiple IP network addresses into one network address.

Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses.

Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses.

Explanation
Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses. This allows you to have
several smaller networks while using only one network address.

Which three of the following are not valid IP addresses?

45.22.156.256

116.0.0.116

1.55.254.3

132.64.32.8

145.8.260.7

257.0.122.55

122.0.0.0

145.8.260.7

257.0.122.55

Explanation
IP addresses have a value between 0 and 255 within each octet. In this list, 45.22.156.256, 145.8.260.7, and 257.0.122.55 are not valid IP addresses.

What is the decimal format of the following binary IP address? 11001110.00111010.10101010.01000011

238.90.202.99

206.58.170.67

190.42.154.51

205.57.169.66

206.58.170.67

Explanation
206.58.170.67 is the decimal form of the IP address. To convert binary to decimal, remember the following numbers: 128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1
Each number represents the decimal value for a binary 1 in the corresponding position. For example, 10000000 is equal to 128, and 00010000 is equal to 16. To find the decimal form of a binary number, add up each decimal equivalent for each 1 bit in the address. For example, the number 11001110 would be: 128 + 64 + 8 + 4 + 2 = 206.

Which of the following is the last IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 211.70.0.0 network using the default subnet mask?

211.70.0.255

211.70.255.255

211.70.0.254

211.71.0.0

211.70.255.254

211.70.0.254

Explanation
The last address you can assign to hosts on the 211.70.0.0 network is 211.70.0.254. The network address is a Class C address and uses a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The last octet is used for host addresses. 211.70.0.0 cannot be used as a host address because it isthe network address. 211.70.0.255 cannot be used as a host address because it is the broadcast address.

What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 203.111.3.3?

255.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.0

Explanation
IP addresses are divided into classes. The most common of these are classes A, B, and C. Each address class has a different default subnet mask. To identify the class of an IP address, look at its first octet.
• Class A networks use a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 and have 0-126 as their first octet.
• Class B networks use a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and have 128-191 as their first octet.
• Class C networks use a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and have 192-223 as their first octet.
In this question, the IP address falls in the Class C range and therefore has a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.

What is the binary format for the following decimal IP address?

131.9.202.111

10000001.00001010.11000011.01010111

10000110.00001011.11000101.10101110

10000111.00001101.11001110.01011101

10000011.00001001.11001010.01101111

10000011.00001001.11001010.01101111

Explanation
10000011.00001001.11001010.01101111 is the binary format of the address. To convert binary to decimal, remember the following numbers:
128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1 Each number represents the decimal value for a binary 1 in the corresponding position. For example, 10000000 is equal to 128, and 00010000 is equal to 16.To find the binary form of a decimal number, try to subtract each decimal value from the value
in the octet. For example, for 131, you can subtract 128 leaving a remainder of 3. You can then subtract 2 and then 1. For each number you can subtract, write a 1 in the binary position of the address.

A host has the address 100.55.177.99/16. Which of the following is the broadcast address for the subnet?

255.255.255.0

100.255.255.255

100.55.255.255

100.55.177.255

255.255.0.0

100.55.255.255

Explanation
The broadcast address for the subnet is the last address on the subnet. In this example, the address uses 16 bits in the subnet mask (255.255.0.0), meaning that the first two octets indicate the subnet address (100.55.0.0), and the last two octets are used for host addresses.
The last possible address on this subnet is 100.55.255.255.

Which of the following IP addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0? (Select all that apply.)

129.0.0.1

123.254.19.6

1.6.45.254

168.16.5.1

191.168.2.15

228.62.18.6

129.0.0.1
168.16.5.1
191.168.2.15

Explanation
IP addresses are divided into classes. The most common of these are classes A, B, and C. Each address class has a different default subnet mask. To identify the class of an IP address, look at its first octet.
• Class A networks use a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 and have 0-126 as their first octet.
• Class B networks use a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and have 128-191 as their first octet.
• Class C networks use a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and have 192-223 as their first octet.
In this question, the IP addresses that fall in the Class B IP address range are 191.168.2.15, 129.0.0.1, and 168.16.5.1.

Which of the following is not a reason to use subnets on a network?

Combine different media type on to the same subnet.

Extend the network.

Improve security.

Isolate network problems.

Combine different media type on to the same subnet.

Explanation
Subnets cannot be used to combine networks of different media type on to the same subnet. Each network with a distinct media type has its own subnet. Subnets can be used to combine networks with different media types within the same internetwork.

Which of the following is the first IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 166.70.0.0 network using the default subnet mask?

166.71.0.0

166.70.1.0

166.70.0.0

166.70.1.1

166.70.0.1

166.70.0.1

Explanation
The first address you can assign to hosts on the 166.70.0.0 network is 166.70.0.1. The network address is a Class B address and uses a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. The last two octets are used for host addresses. The host address range is 166.70.0.1 to 166.70.255.254.
166.70.0.0 cannot be used as a host address because it is the network address. 166.70.255.255 cannot be used as a host address because it is the broadcast address.

You have been told to assign the IP address 21.155.67.188 to a host on the network using the default subnet mask. Which mask should you use?

21.155.0.0

255.255.0.0

21.155.67.0

255.0.0.0

255.255.255.0

21.0.0.0

255.0.0.0

Explanation
The default subnet mask for this address is 255.0.0.0. The address is a class A address, which begins with a number between 1 and 126 in the first octet. 21.0.0.0 is the subnet address. 255.255.0.0 is the default subnet mask for a class B address,and 255.255.255.0 is the default subnet mask for a class C address.

Which of the following is a valid IP (version 4) address? (Select two.)

172.16.1.26

192.168.1.512

1.254.1.1024

254.7.1.417

10.384.0.3

256.0.0.1

2.2.2.2

172.16.1.26

2.2.2.2

Explanation
A valid IPv4 address consists of 4 8bit (1 byte) numbers separated by periods. For example, 10.0.0.65. Because they are 8 bits long, these numbers are frequently called octets. Even though we typically express these numbers using decimal notation, it’s important to remember that these numbers are binary numbers. The lowest value one of these numbers can have is 00000000. The decimal equivalent for this number is simply 0. The highest value one these numbers can take is 11111111. The decimal equivalent of this number is 255. Therefore, in decimal notation, each octet must contain a number between 0 and 255inclusively.

Which three of the following IP addresses are Class B addresses?

132.12.0.0

224.15.55.2

64.2.2.64

129.0.0.0

115.33.0.0

195.155.0.0

190.65.2.0

132.12.0.0
129.0.0.0
190.65.2.0

Explanation
The following are Class B addresses: 129.0.0.0, 132.12.0.0, and 190.65.2.0. The first octet of Class B addresses is in the range of 128 to 191.

Your network has been assigned the Class B address of 130.15.0.0. Which of the following is not an address you can assign to a node on your network?

130.15.60.0

130.16.61.3

130.15.60.220

130.15.0.1

130.16.61.3

Explanation
If you plan to use the Class B address for all nodes on the network, the nodes must all have
the same network address. In this case, all IP addresses must begin with 130.15.

You are configuring the IP address for a host and have been asked to use the address 192.160.99.110/16. What subnet mask value would you use?

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

255.255.252.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.0.0

Explanation
With CIDR notation, the number of bits in the subnet mask is indicated by the /16 following the IP address. A mask that uses 16 bits is written 255.255.0.0 in decimal format. Each octet in the mask uses 8 bits, so a mask with 16 bits uses two full octets. Use /8 for the mask 255.0.0.0 and /24 for the mask 255.255.255.0. In this example, a /24 mask would be the default subnet mask, but the address is using a nondefault
mask of 255.255.0.0.

Your network has been assigned the Class B network address of 179.113.0.0. Which three of the following addresses can be assigned to hosts on your network?

179.113.89.0

179.113.0.0

180.113.0.67

179.114.88.0

179.113.0.118

179.112.95.64

179.113.65.12

179.113.89.0
179.113.0.118
179.113.65.12

Explanation
All hosts on this network must share the first two octets of the IP address (179.113). You cannot assign 179.113.0.0 to a host because this address indicates the address of the network.

Which three of the following IP addresses belong to the Class A network 114.0.0.0? (Assume the network is indicated by the default portion of the IP address.)

114.58.12.0

114.122.66.12

114.0.0.15

115.77.89.4

115.88.0.55

115.0.0.66

114.58.12.0
114.122.66.12
114.0.0.15

Explanation
With a Class A network, the first octet indicates the network address. All hosts on the network must have the same value in the first octet (114).

Which of the following IP address ranges is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing?

192.168.0.1 192.168.254.255

169.254.0.1 169.254.255.254

169.192.0.0 169.192.254.255

192.168.0.0 192.168.255.254

169.168.0.1 169.168.255.255

169.254.0.1 169.254.255.254

Explanation
The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). APIPA also sets the subnet mask on the network to 255.255.0.0.

What is the network address and subnet mask used by APIPA? (Select two.)

255.0.0.0

255.255.255.0

169.0.250.0

255.255.0.0

169.254.0.0

169.255.0.0

255.255.0.0
169.254.0.0

Explanation
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) uses a network address of 169.254.0.0 with the default Class B subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. Host addresses will be within the range of169.254.0.1 and 169.254.255.254.

You have a TCP/IP network with 50 hosts. There have been inconsistent communication problems between hosts. You run a protocol analyzer and discover that two hosts have the same IP address assigned. Which protocol can you implement on your network to help prevent problems such as this?

IP

TCP

ICMP

DHCP

SNMP

IGMP

DHCP

Explanation
You can use the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to set up a DHCP server that will assign IP addresses automatically to network hosts. DHCP servers will not assign the same IP address to two different hosts.

You have a network with 50 workstations. You want to automatically configure workstations with the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway values. Which device should you use?

DNS server

Gateway

Router

DHCP server

DHCP server

Explanation
Use a DHCP server to deliver configuration information to hosts automatically. Using DHCP is easier than configuring each host manually.
Use a gateway to provide access to a different network, or to a network using a different protocol. Use a router to connect multiple subnets. Use a DNS server to provide name resolution, for example to get the IP address associated with a logical host name.

Which of the following strategies are used to prevent duplicate IP addresses being used on a network? (Select two.)

Install the DHCP client on all workstations

Set the Windows networkmonitoring

utility to identify potential IP conflicts

Configure a HOSTS file for local IP resolution

Use Automatic Private IP Addressing

Install a DHCP server on the network

Configure client systems to use static IP assignment

Use Automatic Private IP Addressing
Install a DHCP server on the network

Explanation
To avoid duplicate IP addresses being used by network systems, automatic IP assignment is used. Both the DHCP service and APIPA can automatically assign addresses to client systems. Clients configured to use static IP addressing may inadvertently have duplicate IP addresses
assigned to them. In such a case, one of the systems will not be able to log on to the network.

Which two of the following statements about the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are true?

It can deliver other configuration information in addition to IP addresses.

It cannot be configured to assign the same IP address to the same host each time it boots.

A DHCP server assigns addresses to requesting hosts.

It is used only to deliver IP addresses to hosts.

A DHCP server assigns addresses to requesting hosts.
It can deliver other configuration information in addition to IP addresses.

Explanation
DHCP servers deliver IP addresses as well as other host configuration information to network hosts. DHCP can be configured to assign any available address to a host, or it can assign a specific address to a specific host.

You want to implement a protocol on your network that allows computers to find the IP address of a host from a logical name. Which protocol should you implement?

Telnet

ARP

DHCP

DNS

DNS

Explanation
DNS is a system that is distributed throughout the internetwork to provide address/name resolution. For example, the name www.mydomain.com would be identified with a specific IP address. ARP is a protocol for finding the IP address from a known MAC address. DHCP is a protocol used to assign IP addresses to hosts. Telnet is a remote management utility.

You need to enable hosts on your network to find the IP address of logical names such as srv1.myserver.com. Which device would you use?

IPS

DNS server

Bandwidth shaper

IDS

Load balancer

DNS server

Explanation
Use a DNS server to provide hostname-to-IP address resolution. A bandwidth shaper modifies the flow of traffic to keep traffic within predefined limits. A load balancer accepts incoming client requests, and distributes those requests to multiple other servers. An IDS detects security threats, while an IPS can both detect and respond to security threats.

A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24. The router is configured to use RIP and has learned of networks 192.168.3.0/24 and 192.168.4.0/24. The next hop router for network 192.168.3.0 has changed. You need to make the change with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?

Manually reconfigure the default route to point to the new next hop router.

Stop and restart the RIP protocol on the router.

Wait for convergence to take place.

Force RIP to perform an immediate update.

Wait for convergence to take place.

Explanation
When using a routing protocol, changes in routing information take some time to be propagated to all routers on the network. The term convergence is used to describe the condition when all routers have the same (or correct) routing information. Static routes in the routing table must be updated manually. Restarting RIP might actually increase the time required for changes to be learned. Forcing an update (if the router supports it) is not a requirement as the periodic sharing of routes will eventually update the routing table
entry.

Which of the following statements about RIP is true?

RIP uses hop counts as the cost metric.

RIP is the routing protocol used on the Internet.

RIP is suitable for large networks.

RIP is a link state routing protocol.

RIP uses hop counts as the cost metric.

Explanation
RIP is a distance vector routing protocol. As such, it is susceptible to the count-to-infinity problem. RIP uses the hop count as the cost metric. Because it has a limitation of 15 hops in one route, it is not suited for large networks.

Which of the following routing protocols is classified as a balanced hybrid routing protocol?

EIGRP

OSPF

ISIS

RIP

EIGRP

Explanation
EIGRP is a hybrid routing protocol developed by Cisco for routing within an AS. RIP is a distance vector protocol, while OSPF and ISIS are link state protocols.

You have a router configured to share routing information using RIP. In addition, you have a single static route that identifies a default route for all other networks. The next hop router for the default route has changed. You need to make the change with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?

Manually reconfigure the default route to point to the new next hop router.

Stop and restart the RIP protocol on the router.

Force RIP to perform an immediate update.

Wait for network convergence to take place.

Manually reconfigure the default route to point to the new next hop router.

Explanation
With a static route, when changes to the network occur, routing table entries must be modified, added, or removed manually. In this example, the default route was configured manually, so must be manually updated. When using a routing protocol, routing changes are made automatically by routers sharing routing information. To make a change for a dynamic route, simply wait for convergence to occur (the term convergence describes the condition when all routers have the same routing information).

Which of the following is a characteristic of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?

All routes must be manually updated on the router.

Routers use the hop count to identify the distance to a destination network.

Routers can only use static routing when not connected to the Internet.

Routers send packets for destination networks to the next hop router.

All routes must be manually updated on the router.

Explanation
Static routing requires that entries in the routing table are configured manually. Network entries remain in the routing table until manually removed. When changes to the network occur, static entries must be added or removed. The next hop router is used with most routes to identify the next router in the path to the destination, regardless of whether the route is a static or dynamically-learned route. The hop count can be used by static or dynamic routes, depending on the routing protocol used. Static routing can be used for private and public networks, whether connected to the Internet or not.

You manage a server that uses an IP address of 192.168.255.188 with a mask of 255.255.0.0. Which of the following describes the address type?

Classless

Classful

Multicast

Public

Broadcast

Classless

Explanation
Because the IP address is not using the default subnet mask, it is using classless addressing. Classless addressing modifies the length of the subnet mask, using a custom mask value instead of the default subnet mask. Classful addressing uses the default subnet mask. Devices that only support classful addressing assume the subnet mask based on the IP address class. A broadcast address is an address that is sent to all hosts. Broadcast addresses are the last possible address on a subnet. A multicast address is an address that identifies a group of computers. Members of the group share the same multicast address. Multicast addresses are in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. A public address is an address that is registered for use on the Internet.

What are the main differences between the OSPF and ISIS routing protocols?

OSPF is a link state protocol, while ISIS is not.

OSPF is a classful protocol, while ISIS is a classless protocol.

OSPF requires an area 0, while ISIS does not.

OSPF is an IGP routing protocol, while ISIS is a BGP routing protocol.

OSPF requires an area 0, while ISIS does not.

Explanation
Like OSPF, ISIS uses areas when designing the network. However, ISIS does not require an
area 0 like OSPF does. Because ISIS was originally designed for non-IP protocols, it can more easily support IPv6 routing.
Both OSPF and ISIS have the following characteristics:
• Both are link state protocols.
• Both are classless protocols, supporting CIDR and VLSM.
• Both are Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) that are used within an AS.

Which of the following terms are often synonymous with or made possible with CIDR? (Select two.)

NAT

Classless

VLSM

OSPF

Classful

Classless

VLSM

Explanation
Classless InterDomain Routing (CIDR) allows for non-default subnet masks (variable length subnet mask or VLSM). Routers use the following information to identify networks:
• The beginning network address in the range
• The number of bits used in the subnet mask
For example, the subnet 199.70.0.0 with a mask of 255.255.0.0 is represented as 199.70.0.0/16 (with 16 being the number of 1 bits in the subnet mask). Classful addresses rely on the IP address class to identify the subnet mask. Network Address Translation (NAT) allows you to connect a private network to the Internet without obtaining registered addresses for every host. Private addresses are translated to the public address of the NAT router. OSPF is a routing protocol that supports CIDR features.

You have a network configured to use the OSPF routing protocol. Which of the following describes the state when all OSPF routers have learned about all other routes in the network?

Link state

Convergence

Classful

VLSM

Distance vector

Convergence

Explanation
The term convergence is used to describe the condition when all routers have the same (or correct) routing information. Convergence requires some time, but once reached means that any router has learned about all other networks that are being advertised (or shared) on the
network. Link state and distance vector describe general methods that routers use to share routes with other routers. Classful describes a routing protocol that assumes the subnet mask based on the address class of the network. Variable

Which of the following best describes OSPF?

OSPF is a classful link-state routing protocol.

OSPF is a classless distance vector routing protocol.

OSPF is a classless link-state routing protocol.

OSPF is a classful distance vector routing protocol.

OSPF is a classless link-state routing protocol.

Explanation
OSPF is a classless link-state routing protocol. RIP version 1 and IGRP are both classful distance vector routing protocols. EIGRP is a hybrid protocol that supports classless addressing.

Which of the following protocols has a limit of 15 hops between any two networks?

BGP

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

ISIS

RIP

Explanation
RIP networks are limited in size to a maximum of 15 hops between any two networks. A network with a hop count of 16 indicates an unreachable network. The other routing protocols do not use the hop count as the metric. EIGRP uses bandwidth and delay for the metric. OSPF and ISIS use a relative link cost. BGP uses paths, rules, and polocies for the metric.

What information does the next hop entry in a routing table identify?

The first router in the path to the destination network.

The number of routers that the packet must go through to reach the destination network.

The last router in the path to the destination network.

A backup router that is used for forwarding packets addressed to unknown networks.

The first router in the path to the destination network.

Explanation
The next hop router is the first (or next) router in the path to the destination network. Each router looks at the destination network in the packet, then consults the routing table to identify the next hop router to the destination network. The hop count identifies the number of routers in the path to the destination network. A default gateway router is a router that is used for packets used to external networks. Most routers do not have a default gateway setting, but instead use a default route setting which identifies a next hop router for all unknown networks.

Which of the following routing protocols divides the network into areas, with all networks required to have an area 0 (area 0 identifying the backbone area)?

RIP

EIGRP

ISIS

OSPF

OSPF

Explanation
OSPF divides a large network into areas. Each autonomous system requires an area 0 that identifies the network backbone. All areas are connected to area 0, either directly or indirectly through another area. Routes between areas must pass through area 0. ISIS uses areas but does not have an area 0 requirement. Neither RIP nor EIGRP use areas.

Under which of the following circumstances might you implement BGP on your company network and share routes with Internet routers?

If the network is connected to the Internet using multiple ISPs.

If the network has over 15 areas and uses IPv6.

If the network is connected to the Internet using public addressing.

If the network has over 15 hops.

If the network is connected to the Internet using multiple ISPs.

Explanation
Very large networks can use BGP internally, but typically only share routes on the Internet if the AS has two (or more) connections to the Internet through different ISPs. If your network has over 15 hops, use a routing protocol other than RIP. Use OSPF or ISIS to divide your network into areas. Private networks that use public IP addresses do not need to share routes with Internet routers? it is typically the responsibility of the ISP to configure routes into the private network, even when public addressing is being used. A single route out of the private network is all that is required if the network has a single connection to the Internet.

A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24. The router is configured to use RIP and has learned of networks 192.168.3.0/24 and 192.168.4.0/24. There is no default route configured on the router. The router receives a packet addressed to network 10.1.0.0/16. What will the router do with the packet?

Drop the packet.

Send the packet to both networks 192.168.3.0 and 192.168.4.0 to the next hop router.

Hold the packet in cache until a matching route is learned or configured.

Send the packet out both of its directly connected networks as a broadcast frame.

Drop the packet.

Explanation
If a packet does not match any route in a routing table, the router will simply drop the packet. In this example, the router does not know about the destination network, and also is not configured with a default route. With a default route, the router will forward the packet to the
next hop router specified by the default route.

A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24. The router is configured to use RIP and has learned of networks 192.168.3.0/24 and 192.168.4.0/24. The router is also configured with a static route of 0.0.0.0 with a mask of 0.0.0.0. The router receives a packet addressed to network 10.1.0.0/16. What will the router do with the packet?

Send the packet out both of its directly connected networks to the next hop router.

Send the packet out both of its directly connected networks as a broadcast frame.

Forward the packet to the next hop router specified by the route to network 0.0.0.0.

Drop the packet.

Forward the packet to the next hop router specified by the route to network 0.0.0.0.

Explanation
A route of 0.0.0.0 with a mask of 0.0.0.0 identifies a default route. The default route is used
when no other route is a better match. Packets that match no other networks are sent to the
next hop router specified by default route.

What is the main difference between RIP and RIPv2?

RIP has a limit of 15 hops, while RIPv2 increases the hop count limit.

RIP is a distance vector protocol, while RIPv2 is a link state protocol.

RIP is a classful protocol, while RIPv2 is a classless protocol.

RIP use the hop count for the metric, while RIPv2 uses a relative link cost.

RIP is a classful protocol, while RIPv2 is a classless protocol.

Explanation
RIP v1 is a classful protocol, meaning that the subnet mask is not included in routing updates. With RIP, only the default subnet mask is used to identify networks. RIP v2 is a classless protocol, meaning that the subnet mask is included in routing updates. RIPv2 supports variable
length subnet masks (VLSM). Both RIP and RIPv1 are distance vector protocols and use the hop count for the metric. RIP and RIPv2 have a limit of 15 hops between any two networks.

Which of the following routing protocols is used by routers on the Internet for learning and sharing routes?

EIGRP

BGP

RIP

ISIS

OSPF

BGP

Explanation
BGP is the protocol used on the Internet: ISPs use BGP to identify routes between ASs. Very large networks can use BGP internally, but typically only share routes on the Internet if the AS has two (or more) connections to the Internet through different ISPs. RIP is used on small private networks, while OSPF and EIGRP are used on larger private networks. ISIS is used on very large private networks and within the Internet Service Provider (ISP) network.

Which of the following routing protocols are classified as link state routing protocols? (Select two.)

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

ISIS

RIPv2

OSPF & IS-IS

Explanation
Both OSPF and ISIS are link state protocols. Using the link state method, routers share only their directly connected routes using special packets called link-state advertisements (LSAs) and link-state packets (LSPs). These route advertisements are flooded (forwarded) throughout the network. Routers use this information to build a topology database of the network. RIP and RIPv2 are classified as distance vector protocols. Using the distance vector method, routers share their entire routing table with their immediate neighbors. Routes learned from
neighboring routers are added to the routing table, then shared with that router’s neighbors. EIGRP is a balanced hybrid protocol. A hybrid method combines characteristics of both the distance vector and link state methods. It shares its full routing table at startup, followed by
partial updates when changes occur.

You have a private network connected to the Internet. Your routers will not share routing information about your private network with Internet routers. Which of the following best describes the type of routing protocol you would use?

Static

Link state

IGP

Dynamic

Distance vector

BGP

IGP

Explanation
You would use an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) on routers within your network. Routing protocols can be classified based on whether they are routing traffic within or between autonomous systems: An Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) routes traffic within an AS? an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) routes traffic between ASs. Link state and distance vector describe how routing protocols share routing information. The network size might determine which protocol is best for your network. Static routing uses manually defined routes in the routing table, while dynamic routing uses a protocol so routers learn and share routes with other routers. You can use either static or dynamic routing (or both) on a private network.

Which of the following is not one of the ranges of IP addresses defined in RFC 1918 that are commonly used behind a NAT server?

192.168.0.1 192.168.255.254

172.16.0.1 172.31.255.254

10.0.0.1 10.255.255.254

169.254.0.1 169.254.255.254

169.254.0.1 169.254.255.254

Explanation
169.254.0.1 169.254.255.254 is the range of IP addresses assigned to Windows DHCP clients if a DHCP server does not assign the client an IP address. This range is known as the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range. The other three ranges listed in this question are defined as the private IP addresses from RFC 1918 which are commonly used behind a NAT server.

Which organization is responsible for allocating public IP addresses?

IANA

CompTIA

IEEE

IETF

IANA

Explanation
The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) is responsible for allocating IP addresses used on the Internet. When you want to obtain a public IP address, you would typically get the address from your ISP, which has received it from a Regional Internet Registry (RIR), which has been assigned a block of addresses from IANA. IANA is operated by the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN), so you might also see that ICANN is responsible for assigning public IP addresses. The IETF is an organization that is responsible for settings standards used on the Internet. For example, the IETF has defined the standards for NAT as well as other protocols. The IEEE is an organization that sets networking standards such as for Ethernet or wireless networking. CompTIA is a professional organization that represents computing technology companies and individuals.

You have a small network at home that is connected to the Internet. On your home network you have a server with the IP address of 192.168.55.199/16. All computers on your home network can connect to the Internet. From your work office, you try to access your home computer using its IP address, but are unable to communicate with the server. You are able to connect to other hosts on the Internet.
Why can’t you access the server?

Private addresses are not accessible through the Internet.

The server has been assigned a multicast address.

The server must have an entry on a DNS server that exists on the Internet.

The server isn’t using the default subnet mask.

Private addresses are not accessible through the Internet.

Explanation
The server has been assigned a private IP address. Private addresses are not accessible from the Internet. Instead, a NAT router translates the private address into a public address, and the public address is used to gain access to the private host.

Your computer has an IP address of 161.13.5.15. Your computer is on a:

Public network

Class C network

Private network

Multicast network

Public network

Explanation
Most IP addresses are public IP addresses. However certain ranges have been reserved for private networks. These are:
• 10.0.0.0 10.255.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 192.168.255.255
Because your computer’s IP address does not fall into these ranges, it is a public IP address.

Which of the following associates a port number with a host on a private network?

NAT

CIDR

PAT

VLSM

PAT

Explanation
Port address translation (PAT) associates a port number with the translated address. Use PAT to allow multiple private hosts to share a single public address. Each private host is associated with a unique port number.Technically speaking, NAT translates one address to another. With only NAT, you would have to have a public address for each private host. NAT would associate a single public address with a single private address. Because virtually all NAT routers perform port address translation, most routers that are configured with NAT are really performing PAT. When you use a NAT router, you are normally using PAT and not just NAT. (NAT is typically used synonymously with PAT.) Classless InterDomain Routing (CIDR) allows for non-default subnet masks (variable length subnet mask or VLSM).

You have a computer that is connected to the Internet through a NAT router. You want to use a private addressing scheme for your computer. Which of the following IP addresses could you assign to the computer? (Select all that apply.)

172.18.188.67

192.168.12.253

10.0.12.15

32.188.99.10

224.15.166.12

240.12.188.1

127.0.0.1

172.18.188.67
192.168.12.253
10.0.12.15

Explanation
Of the addresses listed here, the following are in the private IP address ranges:
• 10.0.12.15 (private range = 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255)
• 172.18.188.67 (private range = 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255)
• 192.168.12.253 (private range = 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255)

Which of the following IP addresses is a valid IP address for a host on a public network?

192.168.16.45

10.3.125.2

142.15.6.1

172.16.254.12

142.15.6.1

Explanation
A public network is a network that does not limit traffic to members of a corporation or other group. The Internet is an example of a public network. Certain sets of IP addresses are reserved for private networks only and cannot be used on public networks. They are:
• 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

You have a small network at home that is connected to the Internet. On your home network you have a server with the IP address of 192.168.55.199/16. You have a single public address that is shared by all hosts on your private network. You want to configure the server as a Web server and allow Internet hosts to contact the server to browse a personal Web site. What should you use to allow access?

DNS A record

Static NAT

DNS CNAME record

Multicast

Dynamic NAT

Static NAT

Explanation
Static NAT maps an internal IP address to a static port assignment. Static NAT is typically used to take a server on the private network (such as a Web server) and make it available on the Internet. External hosts contact the internal server using the public IP address and the static
port. Using a static mapping allows external hosts to contact internal hosts. Dynamic NAT automatically maps internal IP addresses with a dynamic port assignment. On the NAT device, the internal device is identified by the public IP address and the dynamic port number. Dynamic NAT allows internal (private) hosts to contact external (public) hosts but not vice versa. External hosts cannot initiate communications with internal hosts. DNS records associate a host name with an IP address. With multicast, a single data stream can be forwarded to all computers that are members of the same multicast group.

Which of the following are valid IPv6 IP addresses? Select all that apply.

343F:1EEE:ACDD:2034:1FF3:5012

165.15.78.53.100.1

127.0.0.1

141:0:0:0:15:0:0:1

192.168.2.15

6384:1319:7700:7631:446A:5511:8940:2552

141:0:0:0:15:0:0:1
6384:1319:7700:7631:446A:5511:8940:2552

Explanation
An IPv6 IP address is a 128-bit address listed as eight 16-bit hexadecimal sections. Leading zeros can be omitted in each section. Therefore, 6384:1319:7700:7631:446A:5511:8940:2552 and 141:0:0:0:15:0:0:1 are both valid IPv6 IP addresses. A single set of all zero sections can
be abbreviated with two colons (::). Therefore, 141::15:0:0:1 would also be a valid address.

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

FEC0::AB:9007

FEC0:9087:AB04:9900:7GA2:7788:CEDF:349A

199.12.254.11

FEC0:AB98::A7::9845:4567

FEC0:AB04:899A

FEC0::AB:9007

Explanation
FEC0::AB:9007 is a valid IPv6 address. The :: in the address replaces blocks of consecutive 0’s. The longer form of this address would be FEC0:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:00AB:9007. Leading 0’s within a quartet can also be omitted. You can only omit one block of 0’s using the double colon. Each number in the IPv6 address must be between 0-9 or A-F? G is not a valid number for the IPv6 address. An address without double colons should have a total of 32 hexadecimal numbers in 8 blocks.

Which of the following address types is shared by multiple hosts, and is used to form groups of computers that should receive the same data stream?

Simplex

Half-duplex

Multicast

Unicast

Broadcast

Multicast

Explanation
A multicast address is an address that identifies a group of computers. Members of the group share the same multicast address. A unicast address is an address that identifies a single host. A broadcast address is an address that is sent to all hosts. Broadcast traffic is typically only forwarded within (but not between) a subnet. Simplex communication uses a single channel for both sending and receiving. Half-duplex uses a separate channel for sending and receiving, but the channels are shared by multiple devices and can only be used by a single device at a time.

Which type of address is the IP address 232.111.255.250?

Multicast

Unicast

Private

Broadcast

Multicast

Explanation
The address 232.111.255.250 is a multicast address. A multicast address is an address that identifies a group of computers. Members of the group share the same multicast address. Multicast addresses are in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. A unicast address is an address that identifies a single host. A broadcast address is an address that is sent to all hosts. Broadcast addresses are the last possible address on a subnet
(typically ending in 255). The private IPv4 address ranges are:
• 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.254
• 172.16.0.1 to 172.31.255.254
• 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.255.254

Which type of address is used in a packet to address the packet to a single host?

Multicast

Fullduplex

Unicast

Simplex

Broadcast

Unicast

Explanation
A unicast address is an address that identifies a single host. A broadcast address is an address that is sent to all hosts. Broadcast traffic is typically only forwarded within (but not between) a subnet. A multicast address is an address that identifies a group of computers. Members of the group share the same multicast address. Simplex communication uses a single channel for both sending and receiving. Full-duplex has a dedicated send and receive channel between any two hosts.

Which protocol does an IP host use to inform a router that it wants to receive specific multicast frames?

SNMP

IP

IGMP

ICMP

MGP

IGMP

Explanation
IP hosts use the IGMP or Internet Group Management Protocol to inform multicast-enabled routers that they want to receive specific multicast frames.

Which type of address is the IP address 198.162.12.254/24?

Unicast

Private

Multicast

Broadcast

Unicast

Explanation
The address 198.162.12.254 is a unicast address that identifies a single host on the 198.162.12.0 subnet. 198.162.12.255 is the broadcast address for the subnet. Multicast addresses are in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.
The private IPv4 address ranges are:
• 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.254
• 172.16.0.1 to 172.31.255.254
• 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.255.254

Which of the following features is used with digital IP phones to supply power through a switch port?

VPN

Spanning tree

PoE

802.1x

Trunking

PoE

Explanation
Power over Ethernet (PoE) supplies power to end devices through the RJ45 Ethernet switch port. Power to the phone is carried on unused wires within the drop cables. Spanning tree is a protocol on a switch that allows the switch to maintain multiple paths between switches within a subnet. The spanning tree protocol runs on each switch and is used to select a single path between any two switches. Trunking allows a switch to forward VLAN traffic between switches. 802.1x is an authentication protocol used with port security (or port authentication).

Which of the following protocols are used with VoIP? (Select two.)

SNMP

SIP

SMTP

RTP

NTP

SIP & RTP

Explanation
Voice over IP (VoIP) uses the following protocols:
• Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets contain the actual voice data.
• Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is used to set up, maintain, teardown, and redirect the call.
NTP is used for synchronizing time between devices. SNMP is used by devices for sending configuration information. SMTP is used for sending email.

Which of the following protocols is used by VoIP to set up, maintain, and terminate a phone call?

TLS

SIP

NTP

RTP

SSH

SIP

Explanation
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is used to set up, maintain, teardown, and redirect the call. The Real-Time
Transport Protocol (RTP) contains the actual voice data. SSH is used for secure remote administration of a network device. TLS is used to add security to other protocols. NTP is used for synchronizing clocks on network devices.

You need to provide DHCP and file share services to a physical network. These services should be deployed using virtualization. Which type of virtualization should you implement?

Virtual networks

Network as a Service (NaaS)

Virtual servers

Virtual desktops

Virtual servers

Explanation
Server virtualization runs multiple instances of a server operating system on a single physical computer. With server virtualization, you can migrate servers on older hardware to newer computers, or add virtual servers to computers with extra unused hardware resources. Virtual desktops do not provide DHCP services. Virtual networks allow virtual servers and desktops to communicate with each other, and they can also allow communication (via the host operating system) to network devices out on the physical network. Network as a Service (NaaS) servers and desktops that are all virtualized and managed by a contracted third-party.

In virtualization, what is the role of the hypervisor?

A hypervisor is a software implementation of a computer that executes programs like a physical machine.

A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system.

A hypervisor has the actual hardware in place on the machine, such as the hard disk drive(s), optical drive, RAM, and motherboard.

A hypervisor is created within the host operating system and simulates a hard disk for the virtual machine.

A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system.

Explanation
A hypervisor is a thin layer of software that resides between the virtual operating system(s) and the hardware. A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system. A hypervisor manages access to system resources
such as:
• CPU
• Storage
• RAM
A physical machine (also known as the host operating system) has the actual hardware in place on the machine, such as the hard disk drive(s), optical drive, RAM, motherboard, etc. A virtual machine is a software implementation of a computer that executes programs like a physical machine. The virtual machine(s) appear to be a self-contained and autonomous system(s). A virtual hard disk (VHD) is a file that is created within the host operating system and that simulates a hard disk for the virtual machine.

Which component is most likely to allow physical and virtual machines to communicate with each other?

Host operating system

Virtual desktop

Virtual switch

VHD

Virtual switch

Explanation
Virtual switches allow multiple virtual servers and/or desktops to communicate on virtual network segments and/or the physical network. Virtual switches are often configured in the hypervisor. A virtual hard disk (VHD) is a file that is created within the host operating system and that simulates a hard disk for the virtual machine. A physical machine (also known as the host operating system) has the actual hardware in place on the machine, such as the hard disk drive(s), optical drive, RAM, motherboard, etc. A virtual desktop is a virtual machine in a software implementation of a computer that executes programs like a physical machine.

What type of virtualization completely simulates a real physical host?

Full virtualization

Semi-virtualization

Paravirtualization

Partial virtualization

Full virtualization

Explanation
In full virtualization, the virtual machine completely simulates a real physical host. This allows most operating systems and applications to run within the virtual machine without being modified in any way. In partial virtualization, only some of the components of the virtual machine are virtualized. Be aware of the following:

•The operating system uses some virtual components and some real physical hardware components in the actual device where the hypervisor • The operating system or application must be modified to run in a partial virtualization environment.

In paravirtualization, the hardware is not virtualized. Be aware of the following:

• All of the guest operating systems running on the hypervisor directly access various hardware resources in the physical device? components are not virtual.
• The guest operating systems run in isolated domains on the same physical hardware.
• The operating system or application must be modified before they can run in a paravirtualization environment.

In troubleshooting a router,you want to identify which other devices are connected to the router,as well as the subnet addresses of each connected subnet.

Which type of document would most likely have this information?

Network Diagram
You are in the habit of regularly monitoring performance statistics for your devices.You find that this month a specific server has averaged a higher number of active connections than last month.

Which type of document should you update to reflect the change?

Baseline
You want to make sure that the correct ports on a firewall have been opened or closed.Which document should you check?
Configuration Documentation
Which of the following information are you likely to find in a policy document?
A requirement for using encrypted communications for Web transactions.
Which of the following documents would likely identify that drop cables on your network use the T568A standard?
Wiring Schematic
A new law was recently passed that states that all business must keep a history of all e-mails sent between members of the board of directors.You need to ensure that your organization complies with this law.

Which document type would you update first in response to this new law?

Policy
You are troubleshooting a work station connection to the network.During your troubleshooting,you replace the drop cable connecting the computer to the network.

Which type of document should you update?

Change documentation
You are troubleshooting a workstation connection to the network.During your troubleshooting,you move the cable in the wiring closet to a different port on the patch panel.

Which type of document should you update?

Wiring schematic
Which type of documentation would you consult to find the location of RJ-45 wall jacks and their endpoints in the intermediate distribution closet?
Wiring schematic
You are troubleshooting the connection of a computer in an office to the punch down block in the distribution closet.Which document would you consult to identify the termination of the cable on the punch down block based on the wall jack location in the office?
Wiring schematic
Which of the following information are you likely to find in a procedure document?
Details on how to test and deploy patches.
You are concerned about the amount of traffic that passed through a router on our network.You want to see how the amount of traffic has changed over time.

Which document would help in identifying past average network traffic?

Baseline
You need to find out what kind of laws might apply to the design and operation of your network.Which type of document would you consult?
Regulation
Which protocol uses traps to send notifications from network devices?
SNMP
Because of an unexplained network slowdown on your network,you decide to install monitoring software on several key network hosts to locate the problem.You will then collect and analyze the data from central network host.

What protocol will the software use to detect the problem?

SNMP
You are an administrator for a large company.You are setting up a computer at a worker’s home so he can telecommute while he recovers from surgery.You want to connect to the UNIX server at the office to update his account information.

Which utility should you use to accomplish this task?

Telnet
You manage a server at a work that has just been configured with a new application.Consequently,the server has crashed several times during the last week.You think you have the problem resolved,but you would like to be able to manage the server remotely in case there is a problem.

Which of the following protocols would you use for a remote management? (Select two.)

ICA
VNC
Which of the following protocols or services would you associate with Window’s Remote Desktop Services network traffic?
RDP
You want to be able to identify traffic that is being generated and sent through the network by a specific application running on a device.

Which tool should you use?

Protocol analyzer
You have a Web site that customers use to view product information and place orders.You would like to identify the maximum number of simultaneous sessions that this server can maintain before performance is negatively impacted.

Which tool should you use?

Load tester
You are concerned about attacks directed against the firewall on your network.You would like to examine the content of individual frames sent to the firewall.

Which tool should you use?

Packet sniffer
You connect a packet sniffer to a switch to monitor frames on your local area network.However,the packet sniffer is only able to see broadcast frames and frames addressed specificaly to the host device.

Which feature should you enable on the switch so you can see frames from all devices connected to the switch?

Mirroring
You have a WAN link that connects two sites.The WAN link is supposed to provide 1.5 Mbps of bandwidth.You want to perform a test to see the actual bandwidth of the link.

Which tool should you use?

Throughput tester
You decide to use a packet sniffer to identity the type of traffic sent to a router.You run the packet sniffing software on a device which is connected to a hub with three other computers.The hub is connected to the same switch that is connected to the router.

When you run the software,you only see frames addressed to the four workstations but not to the router.

Which feature should you configure?

Mirroring
You decide to use a packet sniffer to identify the type of traffic sent to a router.You run the packet sniffing software on a device which is connected to the same hub that is connected to the router.

When you run the software,you only see frames addressed to the workstation and not other devices.

Which feature should you configure?

Promiscuous mode
You want to know what protocols are being used on your network.You’d like to monitor network traffic and sort traffic based on protocol.

Which tool should you use?

Packet sniffer
You have installed a new application on a network device.During testing,it appears as if the software is causing other services running on the device to stop responding.

Which tool should you consult to identify the problem?

Application log
You have a small network of devices connected together using a switch.You want to camputer the traffic that is sent from Host A to Host B.

On Host C,you install a packet sniffer that captures network traffic.After running the packet sniffer, you cannot find any captured packets between Host A and Host B.

What should you do?

Run the packet sniffer application on Host B.
You manage a firewall that connects your private network to the Internet.You would like to see a record of every packet that has been rejected by the firewall in the past month.

Which tool should you use?

Event log
Which of the following allows you to save frequently-accessed Web sites on your local area network for later retrieval?
Proxy
Which of the following devices is capable of performing routing of IP packets at wire speeds using an ASIC module instead of the CPU or software?
Layer 3 switch
You have a network server with two network interface cards.You want both network adapters to be used at the same time to connect to the same network to double the amount of data the server can send.

Which feature would you use?

Ethernet bonding
Which of the following devices does NOT segment the network?
Hub
You manage a network that uses multiple switches .You want to provide multiple paths between switches so that if one link goes down, and alternate path is available.

Which feature should your switch support?

Spanning tree
You want to reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains and virtual LANs. Which of the following devices should you use?
Swich
A switch receives a frame addressed to the MAC address FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.What will the switch do with the frame?
Send it out to all ports except for the port it was received on.
You manage a single subnet with three switches.The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches.

Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active patch between any two switches?

Spanning tree
Which of the following features dynamically places switch ports in blocking or forwarding states?
Spanning tree
Angela i the network administrator for a rapidly growing company with a 100BaseT network.Users have recently complained about slow file transfers.In a check of network traffic,Angela discovers a high number of collisions.

Which connectivity device would best reduce the number of collisions and provide for future growth?

Switch
What is the purpose of using Ethernet bonding? (Select two.)
Increases network performance

Provides a failover solution for network adapters

You have a Web server on your network that hosts the public Web site for your company.You want to make sure that the Web site will continue to be available even if a NIC,hard drive,or other problem prevents the server from responding.

Which solution should you implement?

Load balancing
QoS provides which of the following on a network?
Reduces latency of time-sensitive traffic
Which of the following devices accepts incoming clients request and distributes those request to specific servers?
Load balancer
You manage a server that runs your company Web site.The Web site includes streaming video that shows features of some of your products.

The link connecting your server to the Internet charges based on bandwidth use.When the bandwidth spikes,s does your bill.You would like to implement a solution to prevent the amount of traffic sent over the WAN link from exceeding a specific level.

What solution should you implement?

Traffic shaper
You have a web server on your network that hosts the public Web site for your company.You want to make sure that a failure of the NIC in the server does not prevent the Web site from being accessible on the Internet.

Which solution should you implement?

Ethernet bonding
Which of the following solutions are most likely implemented with VoIP to ensure timely delivery of voice data? (Select two.)
QoS
Traffic shaping
You manage a server that runs your company Web site.The Web server has reached its capacity,and the number of client requests is greater than the server can handle.

You would like to find a solution so that static Web content can be offloaded to a different server,while the Web server continues to process dynamic content.

Which solution should you implement?

Proxy server
Your network conducts training sessions for high-profile clients.As part of the training,clients connect to get a video feed of the instructor and other class activities.You want to make sure that video traffic related to the training is not delayed on the network.

Which solution should you implement?

QoS
You manage a network that uses multiple switches.You want to provide multiple paths between switches so that if one link goes down,an alternate path is available.

Which feature should your switch support

Spanning tree
You manage a server that runs your company Web site.The Web server has reached its capacity,and the number of client requests is greater than the server can handle.

You would like to find a solution so that a second server can respond to request for Web site content.

Which solution should you implement?

Load balancing
You have a Web site that uses multiple servers for different types of transactions.For example,one server is responsible for static Web content,while another is responsible for secure transactions.

You would like to implement a device to speed up access to your Web content.The device should be able to distribute request between the various Web servers using specialized hardware and not just as software configuration.In addition,SSL sessions should use the hardware components in the device to create the SSL sessions.

Which type of device should you choose?

Content switch
Which of the following protocols are used with VoIP?
SIP
RTP
Which of the following protocols is used by VoIP to set up, maintain, and terminate a phone call?
SIP
Which of the following features is used with digital IP phones to supply power through a switch port?
PoE
Which type of address is the IP address 232.111.255.250?
Multicast
Which of the following IP addresses is a valid IP address for a host on a public network?
142.15.6.1
You have a computer that is connected to the internet through a NAT router. You want to use a private addressing scheme for your computer. Which of the following IP addresses could you assign to the computer?
172.18.188.67
10.0.12.15
192.168.12.253
Which of the following is not one of the ranges of IP addresses defined in RFC 1918 that are commonly used behind a NAT server?
169.254.0.1 – 169.254.255.254
You have a small network at home that is connected to the Internet. On your home network you have a server with the IP address of 192.138.55.199/16. You have a single public address that is shared by all hosts on your private network. You want to configure the server as a Web server and allow Internet hosts to contact the server to browse a personal website.
What should you use to allow access?
Static NAT
You have a small network at home that is connected to the Internet. On your home network you have a server with the IP address of 192.168.55.199/16. All computers on your home network can connect to the Internet. From your work office, you try to access your home computer using its IP address, but are unable to communicate with the server. You are able to connect to other hosts on the Internet.
Why cant you access the server?
Private addresses are not accessible through the Internet.
You have a private network connected to the Internet. Your routers will not share routing information about your private networkwith Internet routers. Which of the following best describes the type of routing protocol you would use?
IGP
What are the main differences between the OSPF and IS-IS routing protocols?
OSPF requires an area 0, while IS-IS does not.
What information does the next hop entry in the routing table indentify?
The first router in the path to the destination network.
Which of the following are often synonymous with or made possible by CIDR?
Classless
VLSM
You have a router configured to share routing information using RIP. In addition, you have a single static route that identifies a default route for all other networks. The next hop router for the default route has changed. You need to make changes with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?
Manually configure the default route to point to the next hop router.
Which of the following statements about RIP is true?
RIP uses hop counts as the cost metric.
You manage a server that uses an IP address of 192.168.255.188 with a mask of 255.255.0.0. Which of the following describes the address type?
Classless.
Which two of the following statements about the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are true?
It can deliver other configuration information in addition to IP addresses.
A DHCP server assigns addresses to requesting hosts.
You have a network with 50 workstations. You want to automatically configure workstations with the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway values.
Which device should you use?
DHCP Server.
Which of the following IP addresses ranges is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing?
169.254.0.1 – 169.254.255.254
You have a TCP/IP network with 50 hosts. There has been in consistant communication problems between hosts. You run a protocol analyzer and discover that two hosts have the same IP address assigned.
Which protocol can you implement on your network to help prevent problems such as this?
DHCP
What is the network address and subnet mask used by APIPA?
255.255.0.0
169.254.0.0
Which of the following strategies are used to prevent duplicate IP addresses being used on a network?
Install a DHCP server on the network.
Use Automatic Private IP Addressing.
In an IP addressing scheme using default subnet masks, which of the following IP addresses can you assign to a host?
132.70.254.15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of using subnets?
Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses.
A host has the address 100.55.177.99/16. Which of the following is the broadcast address for the subnet?
100.55.255.255
Which of the following is a valid IP address?
2.2.2.2
172.16.1.26
You are configuring the IP address for a host and have been asked to use the address 192.160.99.110/16. What subnet mask value would you use?
255.255.0.0
What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 203.111.3.3?
255.255.255.0
What is the binary format for the following decimal IP address 131.9.202.11
10000011.00001001.11001010.01101111
A host on the network has an IP address of 129.11.99.78 using the default subnet mask. How would you identify the address and mask using CIDR notation?
129.11.99.78/16
Your network has been assigned the Class B network address of 179.113.0.0 Which three of the following can be assigned to hosts on your network?
179.113.89.0
179.113.65.12
179.113.0.118
Consider the following IP address.
1. 124.77.8.5
2. 131.11.0.9
3. 190.66.250.10
4. 196.5.89.44
Which list represents the IP address class of each listed IP address?
Class A, Class B, Class B, Class C.
What is the decimal format for the following binary IP address?
206.58.170.67
You manage a subnet that uses the following subnet address: 198.162.1.0/23.
Which of the following best describes how addressing is configured for the subnet?
Supernetting
Your network has been assigned the Class B address of 130.15.0.0. Which of the following is not an address you can assign to a node on your network?
130.16.61.3
Which three of the following are not valid IP address?
145.8.260.7
257.0.122.55
45.22.156.256
You have been told to assign the IP address 21.155.67.188 to a host on the network using the default subnet mask. Which mask should you use?
255.0.0.0
Which of the following is not a reason to use subnets on a network?
Combine different media type on to the same subnet.
Which of the following is the last IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 1676.70.0.0 using the default subnet mask?
166.70.255.254
Which of the following IP addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
129.0.0.1
191.168.2.15
168.16.5.1
Which of the following is the last IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 211.70.0.0 network using the default subnet mask?
211.70.0.254
Your network has been assigned the Class C address of 200.78.151.0. Which three of the following addresses can be assigned to hosts on your network?
200.78.151.252
200.78.151.12
200.78.151.111
Which of the following is the first IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 166.70.0.0 network using the default subnet mask?
166.70.0.1
Which three of the following IP addresses belong to the Class A network 114.0.0.0? ( Assume the network is indicated by the default portion of the IP address.)
114.0.0.15
114.122.66.12
114.58.12.0
Which three of the following IP addresses are Class B addresses?
132.12.0.0
190.65.2.0
129.0.0.0
Which three of the following IP addresses are Class C addresses?
192.15.5.55
223.16.5.0
225.55.0.0
You need to provide DHCP and file share services to a physical network.These services should be deployed using virtualization. Which type of virtualization should you implement?
Virtual servers
What type of virtualization completely simulates a real physical host?
Full virtualization
Which component is most likely to allow physical and virtual machines to communicate with each other?
Virtual swich
You have configured a virtual network which includes the following virtual components
Four virtual machines (i.e., Virtual OS1,Virtual OS2,etc.)
One virtual switch
The virtual switch is connected to a physical network to allow the virtual machines to communicate with the physical machines out on the physical network.
Given the port configuration for the virtual switch and the physical switch in the table below, click on all of the virtual and physical machines that Virtual OS1 can communicate with.
Virtual OS3
Physical OS1-1
Physical OS1-2
Physical OS1-3
Physical OS1-4
In virtualization,what is the role of the hypervisor?
A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system.
You have configured a virtual network which includes the following virtual components
Four virtual machines (i.e., Virtual OS1,Virtual OS2,etc.)
One virtual switch
The virtual switch is connected to a physical network to allow the virtual machines to communicate with the physical machines out on the physical network.
Given the port configuration for the virtual switch and the physical switch in the table below, click on all of the virtual and physical machines that Virtual OS1 can communicate with.
Virtual OS2 & 3
Which type of address is used in a packet to address the packet to a single host?
Unicast
Which type of address is the IP address 198.162.12.254/24?
Unicast
Which protocol does an IP host use to inform a router that it wants to receive specific multicast frames?
IGMP
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
FEC0::AB:9007
Which of the following are valid IPv6 IP addresses? Select all that apply.
6384:1319:7700:7631:446A:5511:8940:2552
141:0:0:0:15:0:0:1
Your computer has an IP address of 161.13.5.15.You computer is on a:
Public network
Which organization is responsible for allocation public IP addresses?
IANA
Which of the following associates a port number with a host on a privet network?
PAT
A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24.The router is configured to use RIP and has learned of networks 192.168.3.0/24 and 192.168.4.0/24.There is no default route configured on the router.
The router receives a packet addressed to network 10.1.0.0/16. What will the router do with the packet?
Drop the packet.
Under which of the following circumstances might you implement GBP on your company network and share routes with Internet routers?
If the network is connected to the Internet using multiple ISPs.
Which of the following routing protocols is classified as a balanced hybrid of routing protocol.
EIGRP
Which of the following routing protocols is used by routers on the internet or learning and sharing routes?
BGP
Which of the following protocols has a limit of 15 hops between any two networks?
RIP
What is the main difference between RIP and RIPv2?
RIP is a classful protocol,while RIPv2 is a classless protocol.
Which of the following is a characteristic of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?
All routes must be manually updated on the router.
You have a network configured to use the OSPF routing protocol.
Which of the following describes the state when all OSPF routers have learned about all other routes in the network?
Convergence
Which of the following routing protocols divides the network into areas,with all networks required to have an area 0 (area 0 identifying the backbone areas)?
OSPF
Which of the following best describes OSPF
OSPF is a classless link-state routing protocol.
Which of the following routing protocols are classifies as link state routing protocols? (Select two.)
OSPF
IS-IS
A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24.The router is configured to use RIP and has learned of networks 192.168.3.0/24 and 192.168.4.0/24.
The next hop router for network 192.168.3.0 has changed.You need to make the change with the least amount of effort possible.What should you do?
Wait for convergence to take place.
A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24. The router is configured to use RIP and has learned of networks 192.168.3.0/24 and 192.168.4.0/24.The router is also configured with a static router of 0.0.0.0 with a mask of 0.0.0.0.
The router receives a packet addressed to network 10.1.0.0/16.What will the router do with the packet?
Forward the packet to the next hop router specified by the route to network 0.0.0.0.
Which of the following terms are often synonymous with or made possible with CIDR? (Select two.)
Classless
VLSM
What type of component is most likely to allow physical and virtual machines to communicate with each other?
Virtual switch
Which of the following address types is shared by multiple hosts, and is used to form groups of computers that should receive the same data stream?
Multicast
The media access control method of all Ethernet networks is
CSMA/CD
Which of the following connectors is used with Ethernet 10BaseT networks?
RJ-45
Which of the following use the CSMA/CD access method?(2 answers)
1000BaseT, 10BaseT
A network is connected following the IEEE 802.3 specifications. Which of the following best describes when a device can transmit messages?
The device listens to determine if the transmission media is free.
Which of the following physical topologies are used with Ethernet networks?(2 answers)
Bus, Star
With an Ethernet 10BaseT network, the maximum cable length between a computer and the hub is:
100 meters
Which of the following are requirements of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standards?(3 answers)
CAT 5e cabling

RJ-45 connectors

The cable length must be less than or equal to 100m

You want to implement an Ethernet network at very long distances using fiber optic cables. Which standard and cable type would you choose?(2 answers)
1000BaseLX

Single Mode Fiber

You have been tasked with designing a high-speed Ethernet network. Your client’s building already has 150 ohm shielded twisted pair wiring installed. Due to budget constraints, they have asked you to reuse the existing wiring instead of installing new fiber optic cabling. Which Ethernet standard could you implement in this situation?
1000BaseCX
Your network follows the 100BaseTx specifications for Fast Ethernet. What is the maximum cable segment length allowed?
100 meters
Which of the following Ethernet standards uses fiber optic cabling?(2 answers)
100BaseFX

1000BaseLX

You have been tasked with designing an Ethernet network. Your client needs to implement a very high-speed network backbone between campus buildings; some of which are around 300 m apart. Fiber-optic cabling has already been installed between buildings. Your client has asked that you use the existing cabling that operates at full-duplex. Which Ethernet standard meets these guidelines?(2 answers)
1000BaseSX, 10GBaseSR
Which Gigabit Ethernet standard uses multimode fiber-optic cabling and supports network segments up to a maximum of 550 m long?
1000BaseSX
What type of cabling is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?
Type 1A STP or Category 5 UTP
What is the minimum cable specification that supports 1000 Mbps Ethernet?
Cat 5
What topology is used with 100BaseTX Fast Ethernet networks?(2 answers)
Physical star/logical bus, Physical star/logical star
Which Gigabit Ethernet standard can support long network segments up to a maximum of 5 km when used with single mode fiber-optic cable?
1000BaseLX
Ethernet 100BaseFX networks use what type of cabling?
Fiber-optic
Your network follows the 100BaseFX specifications for Fast Ethernet, and uses half-duplex, multimode cable. What is the maximum cable segment length allowed?
412 meters
Which of the following standards is used by SONET?
10GBaseLW
You are planning a network for an educational campus. Due to the size of the buildings and the distance between them, you have elected to use 10BaseFL hubs, cabling, and network interface cards. What is the maximum length for the network cable between a workstation and a hub?
2000 meters
You would like to implement 10 Gbps Ethernet over a distance of 1 km or greater. Which of the following would be the minimum requirement for the implementation?(2 answers)
10GBaseLR standards

10GbaseEr Standards

Single mode fiber

You have a router configured to share routing information using RIP. In addition, you have a single static route that identifies a default route for all other networks?
Manually reconfigure the default route to point to the new next hop router.
Which of the following is a characteristic of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?
All routers must be manually updated on the router.
Network needs to support 1000 Mbps over ethernet. What cables must you replace?
cat 3

cat4

Workstation -> Router Config Port. What cable?
Rollover
Which standard is typically used in a rollover cable?
RJ-232
Workstation -> Switch through regular port (not uplink) and switch doesn’t support auto-mdi.
Straight Through
Which connector is usually on one end of a rollover?
serial
You want to create a rollover cable that has an RJ-45 connector on both ends. How should you connect the wires within the connectors?
Connect pin 1 to pin 8, pin 2 to pin 7, pin 3 to pin 6, and pin 4 to pin 5
You want to connect the LAN port on a router to the uplink port on a switch. The switch does not support auto-MDI. Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You need to transfer data from one laptop to another and would like to use an Ethernet cable. You do not have a hub or a switch. Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
You have two switches that you need to connect using their uplink ports. The switches do not support auto-MDI. Which type of cable should you use?
Crossover
Which of the following is a valid MAC address?
A CO-34-FF-15-01-8E
B 25s.255.2s5.0
C 34-9A-86-1G-B3-24
D 83-5A-5B-0B-31-55-F1
E 192.168.12.15
F 73-99-12-61-15
A CO-34-FF-15-01-8E
Which of the following statements accurately describes how a modem works? (Select two.)
A It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data.
B It transmits digital signals over ordinary telephone copper wiring at a rate up to 128 Kbps.
C It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.
D It communicates over a telephone network using digital signals.
E It modulates digital data from a telephone network into analog data that a PC can use.
F It demodulates analog PC data into digital data that can be transmitted through a telephone network.
A It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data.
C It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.
What type of module might a switch use to allow it to modify the media type supported by a switch port? (Select
two.)
A MPLS
B SFP
C OC-X
D GBIC
B SFP
D GBIC
At which OSI model layer does a media converter operate?
A Layer 1
B Layer 2
C Layer 3
D Layer 4
A Layer 1
Which of the following is a valid MAC address?
A 145.65.254.1O
B FABC.875E.9BG6
C 95ABC2F4.ABC5.569D.43BF
D AB.07.CF.62.16.BD
D AB.07.CF.62.16.BD
A host wants to send a message to another host with the IP address 115.99.80.157. IP does not know the hardware
address of the destination device. Which protocol can be used to discover the MAC address?
A Boorp
B DHCP
C ICMP
D ous
E IGMP
F ARP
F ARP
You have a server that has a 100BaseFX network interface card that you need to connect to a switch. The switch only
has 100BaseTX switch ports.
Which device should you use?
A Media converter
B Bridge
C Repeater
D Hub
E Gateway
A Media converter
What device sends signals from a computer onto a network?
A Cable
B Router
C Transceiver
D Gateway
C Transceiver
Which of the following is true about the MAC address? (Select two.)
A It is typically represented by octets of decimal numbers between 0-255.
B It is a 48-bit address.
C It is a 32-blt address.
D It is a 64-blt address.
E It is typically represented by hexadecimal numbers.
B It is a 48-bit address.
E It is typically represented by hexadecimal numbers.
Which network component connects a device with the transmission media and allows it to send and receive
messages?
A Client
B Network interface card
C Peripheral
D Protocol
E Server
B Network interface card
A switch is associated with which OSI model layer?
A Data Link
B Network
C Transport
D Physical
A Data Link
Which of the following best describes how a switch functions?
A It connects multiple cable segments (or devices), and forwards frames to the appropriate segment.
B It connects multiple segments of different architectures. It translates frames, and broadcasts them to all of its
ports.
C It connects multiple cable segments (or devices), and broadcasts frames to all of its ports.
D It connects multiple segments of different architectures. It translates frames, and forwards them to the
appropriate segment.
A It connects multiple cable segments (or devices), and forwards frames to the appropriate segment.
Which of the following devices operate at OSI model layer Z? (Select two.)
A Repeater
B Router
C Firewall
D switch
E Hub
F Network interface card
D switch
F Network interface card
Which three of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model?
A Routers
B Network interface cards (NICs)
C Hubs
D Bridges
E Switches
F Repeaters
B Network interface cards (NICs)
D Bridges
E Switches
Which of the following devices is used on a LAN and offers guaranteed bandwidth to each port?
A Router
B switch
C Bridge
B switch
Your company purchases a new bridge, which filters packets based on the MAC address of the destination computer.
On which layer of the OSI model is this device functioning?
A Presentation
B Session
C Transport
D Data Link
D Data Link
An 8-port switch receives a frame on port number 1. The frame is addressed to an unknown device. What will the
switch do?
A Send the frame out the destination port.
B Drop the frame.
C Send the frame out all 8 ports.
D Send the frame out ports 2-8.
D Send the frame out ports 2-8.
Which of the following hardware devices regenerates a signal out all connected ports without examining the frame or
packet contents? (Select two.)
A Gateway
B Repeater
C switch
D Hub
E Bridge
F Router
B Repeater
D Hub
How do switches and bridges learn where devices are located on a network?
A When a frame enters a port, the source IP address is copied from the frame header.
B When a frame enters a port, the source MAC address is copied from the frame header.
C When a frame enters a port, the destination IP address is copied from the frame header.
D When a frame enters a port, the destination MAC address is copied from frame header.
B When a frame enters a port, the source MAC address is copied from the frame header.
At which layer of the OSI model do hubs operate?
A Layer 3
B Data Link
C Physical
D Internet
C Physical
An access point that conforms to the IEEE 802.11b standard acts most closely to what other networking device?
A Hub
B Gateway
C Patch bay
D Router
E Terminal
A Hub
At what OSI layer does a router operate to forward network messages?
A Session
B Transport
C Network
D Physical
E Data Link
C Network
Which of the following hardware devices links multiple networks and directs traffic between networks?
A Repeater
B Bridge
C Hub
D Router
D Router
You are the administrator of your company’s network. You want to prevent unauthorized access to your intranet from
the Internet. Which of the following should you implement?
A ICS
B Firewall
C Proxy server
D Packet Internet Groper
B Firewall
At which of the following OSI layers does a router operate?
A Layer 1
B Layer 2
C Layer 3
D Layer 4
C Layer 3
You are the network administrator for a small organization. Recently, you contracted with an ISP to connect your
organization’s network to the Internet to provide users with Internet access. Since doing so, it has come to your
attention that an intruder has invaded your network from the Internet on three separate occasions.
What type of network hardware should you implement to prevent this from happening again?
A csu/Dsu
B Router
C Firewall
D switch
E Hub
F Proxy server
C Firewall
Which two of the following tasks do routers perform?
A Control access to the transmission media
B Multiplex signals onto the same transmission media
C Maintain information about paths through an internetwork
D Route data based on logical network addresses
E Route data based on hardware device addresses
F Identify devices through hardware addresses
C Maintain information about paths through an internetwork
D Route data based on logical network addresses
Which of the following is the best device to deploy to protect your private network from a public untrusted network?
A Gateway
B Router
C Firewall
D Hub
C Firewall
In which of the following situations might you use an RJ-11 connector?
A You want to connect the 10BaseT network card in your computer to a switch.
B You want to connect your computer to the Internet with a dial-up connection.
C You want to upgrade your 10BaseT network to 10OBaseT.
D You want to test a network cable to see if there is a break in the line.
B You want to connect your computer to the Internet with a dial-up connection.
When would you typically use an RJ-11 connector?
A When using single mode fiber optic cables.
B When using Cat 3 cables.
C When connecting a phone to a phone line.
D When using multimode fiber optic cables.
E When using Cat 5 or higher cables.
F When using RG—6 cables.
C When connecting a phone to a phone line.
You are adding new wires in your building for some new offices. The building has a false ceiling that holds the lights.
You would like to run your Ethernet cables in this area.
Which type of cable must you use?
A Fiber optic
B pvc
C srp
D Plenum
E Cat 5e or Cat 6e
D Plenum
Which of the following applications is more likely to justify the investment in Category 6 cable?
A E-maiI
B Instant Messaging
C Printing
D Streaming video
D Streaming video
Which of the following cable types often includes a solid plastic core?
A cat 5
B cat 3
C Cat 5e
D cat 6
D cat 6
You are installing networking wiring for a new Ethernet network at your company’s main office building. The project
specifications call for Category 5 UTP network cabling and RJ-45 wall jacks. Near the end of the project, you run out
of wire before the last few runs are complete. You have a spool of Category 3 network cable in storage. Upon
investigation, it appears very similar to Category 5 wiring.
Should you substitute Category 3 cabling for Category 5 cabling to finish the project?
A No, Category 5 cabling has more twists per inch than Category 3 cabling to reduce cross—talk and support higher
data rates.
B No, Category 3 cabling doesn’t support RJ-45 connectors.
C No, Category 5 cabling uses a thicker copper wire than Category 3 cable; enabling higher data transmission
rates.
D No, the sheath surrounding Category 5 cable is much thicker; creating an extra layer of shielding to reduce
cross—talk and support higher data rates.
E Yes, you can substitute Category 5 wiring with Category 3 wiring, as they are electrically identical
A No, Category 5 cabling has more twists per inch than Category 3 cabling to reduce cross—talk and support higher
data rates.
Which of the following are characteristics of coaxial network cable? (Choose three.)
A It uses two concentric metallic conductors.
B It uses two concentric conductors made from plastic or glass which conduct light signals.
C It uses RJ-45 connectors
D It has a conductor made from copper in the center of the cable.
E The ends of the cable must be terminated.
F It is composed of four pairs of 22—gauge copper wire.
G The conductors within the cable are twisted around each other to eliminate cross—talk.
A It uses two concentric metallic conductors.
D It has a conductor made from copper in the center of the cable.
E The ends of the cable must be terminated.
F—type connectors are typically used with cables using which of the following standards? (Select two.)
A RG-59
B RG-6
C RG-58
D cat 5
E Cat 5e
F Cat 6e
A RG-59
B RG-6
Which of the following cable classifications are typically used for cable and satellite networking with coaxial cables?
(Select two.)
A RG-6
B RG-8
C RG-58
D RG-59
A RG-6
D RG-59
Of the following cables, which offer the best protection against EMI?
A Cat 5e
B Cat 6e
C cat 5
D RG-6
D RG-6
You have just signed up for a broadband home Internet service that uses coaxial cable. Which connector type will you
most likely use?
A RJ-45
B RJ-11
C sc
D F-type
E ST
F smc
D F-type
You have a small home network connected to the Internet using an RG-6 cable. You need to move the router
connecting the network to the Internet, but can’t find any RG-6 cable.
Which cable types could you use instead?
A RG-59
B RG-8
C RG-8, RG-58, or RG—59
D RG-58 or RG-59
E RG-58
F RG-8 or RG-58
A RG-59
Which of the following are advantages of using fiber optic cabling for a network, as opposed to other types of cabling?
(Select two.)
A Greater cable distances without a repeater
B Immunity to electromagnetic interference
C Lower installation cost
D Faster installation
A Greater cable distances without a repeater
B Immunity to electromagnetic interference
Which of the following are characteristics of an LC fiber optic connector? (Choose two.)
A They use a housing and latch system similar to an RJ-45 UTP connector.
B They are threaded.
C They use a one—piece bayonet connecting system.
D They are half the size of standard connectors.
E They can be used with either fiber optic or copper cabling.
F They use a stainless steel housing.
A They use a housing and latch system similar to an RJ-45 UTP connector.
D They are half the size of standard connectors.
Which of the following connectors usually require polishing as part of the assembly process? (Select two.)
A ST
B AUI
C IDC
D SC
E BNC
A ST
D SC
Which of the following are characteristics of an MT-RJ fiber optic connector? (Select two.)
A They use metal guide pins to ensure accurate alignment.
B They use a keyed bayonet.
C They use a nickel-plated housing.
D They can be used with multimode fiber optic cables.
E They must never be used with single-mode fiber-optic cables.
F They are used with multifiber fiber optic ribbon cables.
A They use metal guide pins to ensure accurate alignment.
D They can be used with multimode fiber optic cables.
Which of the following is true about single mode fiber optic network cabling?
A The central core is smaller than that of multimode fiber optic cabling.
B It transmits multiple rays of light concurrently.
C It doesn’t support segment lengths as long as that supported by multimode fiber optic cabling.
D It’s less expensive than multimode fiber optic cabling.
E The central core is composed of braided plastic or glass fibers.
A The central core is smaller than that of multimode fiber optic cabling.
Of the following cables, which offer the best protection against EMI?
A cat 5
B RG-6
C Single mode fiber optic
D Cat 5e
C Single mode fiber optic
Which of the following forms of optical fiber would usually be used to connect two buildings across campus from each
other, which are several kilometers apart?
A Dual mode
B Fibre Channel mode
C Multimode
D Single mode
D Single mode
Which of the following connectors are used with fiber optic cables and include both cables in a single connector?
(Select two.)
A LC
B ST
C sc
D MT-RJ
E Bixlc
A LC
D MT-RJ
Which of the following connectors is used with fiber optic cables and connects using a twisting motion?
A F-type
B LC
C sc
D ST
E Bixlc
D ST
You are building network cables and attaching RJ-45 connectors to each end. Which tool do you need for this task?
A Crimping tool
B Punch down tool
C Vampire taps
D Needle nose pliers
A Crimping tool
When using 110 blocks for connecting Cat5 and higher data cables, which recommendation should you follow?
A Use C-5 connectors.
B Connect wires using the T568A standard.
C Keep wire pairs twisted up to within one—half of an inch of the connector.
D Connect wires using the T568B standard.
C Keep wire pairs twisted up to within one—half of an inch of the connector.
You are making Ethernet drop cables using Cat5e cable and RJ-45 connectors. You need to remove the plastic coating
over the cable to expose the individual wires.
Which tool should you use?
A Snips
B Punchdown tool
C Cable stripper
D Butt set
C Cable stripper
What tool should you use to extend network services beyond the demarc?
A Tone generator
B Punchdown tool
C Crimper
D Media certifier
B Punchdown tool
You have a network that occupies the top floor of a three story building. The WAN service provider has installed the
line for the WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor.
What would you use to relocate the WAN line into a wiring closet on your floor?
A Demarc extension
B Horizontal cross connect
C 66 block
D 110 block
E Smart jack
A Demarc extension
Which of the following describes the point where the service provider’s responsibility ends and the customer’s
responsibility begins for installing and maintaining wiring and equipment?
A Smart jack
B tor
C Punchdown block
D Vertical cross connect
E Demarc
E Demarc
You have a network that occupies all three floors of a building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the
WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor.
You have a second wiring closet on the main floor. You need to connect the two wiring closets. Which of the following
are typically used to connect the two wiring closets? (Select two.)
A 25 pair
BVertical cross connect
C Horizontal cross connect
D Demarc extension
E Smart jack
A 25 pair
C Horizontal cross connect
Which of the following uses metal clips placed over plastic slots for connecting individual copper wires?
A 25 pair
B 100 pair
C 110 block
D 66 block
C 110 block
You want to use the T568B standard for adding connectors to your Cat5 cable. Starting with pin 1, which order should
you use for the wires within the connector?
A White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
B White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
C White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown
D White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown
B White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
You want to use the T568A standard for adding connectors to your Cat5 cable. Starting with pin 1, which order should
you use for the wires within the connector?
A White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
B White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown
C White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown
D White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
D White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
You are preparing to attach wires in a 110 block. You want to connect the wires and trim off the excess at the same
time.
Which of the following should you do? (Select two.)
A Use a butt set with a jack.
B Use a butt set with clips.
C Use a punchdown tool with a straight blade.
D Use a punchdown tool with a notched blade.
E Point the cut side of the tool towards the wire end.
F Point the cut side of the tool towards the connected end of the wire.
D Use a punchdown tool with a notched blade.
E Point the cut side of the tool towards the wire end.
You are working with 25 pair wires and 66 blocks. You have pushed the wires onto the 66 block, but now need to cut
off the excess end of each wire.
Which tool should you use?
A Snips
B Punchdown tool
C Cable stripper
D Butt set
B Punchdown tool
Which of the following methods would you use to create a crossover cable?
A Use the T568A standard on one connector, and the BLOG convention on the other connector.
B Use the T568B standard.
C Use the T568B standard on one connector, and the BLOG convention on the other connector.
D Use the T568A standard.
E Use the T568A standard on one connector, and the T568B standard on the other connector.
E Use the T568A standard on one connector, and the T568B standard on the other connector.
You have a network that occupies both floors of a building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the
WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor.
You have a second wiring closet on the second floor directly above the wiring closet that holds the demarc. Which of
the following terms describes the closet on the second floor?
A IDF
B Demarc extension
C MDF
D Horizontal cross connect
E Vertical cross connect
A IDF
Intermediate distribution frame (IDF)
You are connecting Cat5e cables to a 110 block. In what order should you connect the wires to follow standard wiring
convendons?
A White/brown, brown, white/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green
B White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown
C White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
D White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
B White/blue, blue, white/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/brown, brown
Which of the following terms identifies the wiring closet in the basement or a ground floor that typically includes the
demarcation point?
A IDF
B Smart jack
C Horizontal cross connect
D 110 block
E MDF
E MDF
Which of the following is used to terminate individual wires from a 25 pair or 100 pair cable using female RJ-45
ports?
A 66 block
B 110 block
C Horizontal cross connect
D Patch panel
D Patch panel
Which pins in an RJ-45 connector are used to transmit data when used on a 100BaseT Ethernet network? (Choose
two.)
A Pin 1
B Pin 2
C Pin 3
D Pin 4
E Pin 5
F Pin 6
G Pin 7
H Pin 8
A Pin 1
B Pin 2
You have a network that occupies all three floors of a building. The WAN service provider has installed the line for the
WAN service into the building in a wiring closet on the main floor. You have a wiring closet on the two remaining
floors directly above the wiring closet on the main floor.
What would you use to connect the wiring closets together?
A Smart jack
B Demarc extension
C Horizontal cross connect
D Vertical cross connect
D Vertical cross connect

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