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Chapter 9 MSOM

1) The ES of an activity that has only one predecessor is simply the EF of that predecessor.
A
2) One phase of a large project is scheduling.
A
3) A project organization works best for an organization when the project resides in only one of its functional areas.
B
4) By their very nature, projects have a limited lifetime, and that sets project management apart from the management of more traditional activities.
A
5) One responsibility of a project manager is to make sure that the project meets its quality goals.
A
6) Work Breakdown Structure is a useful tool in project management because it addresses the timing of individual work elements.
B
7) Project managers have their own code of ethics, established by the Project Management Institute.
A
8) Ethical issues which can arise in projects include gifts from contractors, pressure to mask delays with false status reports, and pressure to compromise project quality for cost or time savings.
A
9) Gantt charts give a timeline for each of a project’s activities, but they do not adequately illustrate the interrelationships between the activities and the resources.
A
10) PERT, but not CPM, has the ability to consider the precedence relationships in a project.
B
11) The shortest of all paths through the network is the critical path.
B
12) The fundamental difference between PERT and CPM is that PERT uses the beta distribution for crashing projects while CPM uses cost estimates.
B
13) Slack is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project.
A
14) Every network has at least one critical path.
A
15) The critical path can be determined by use of either the “forward pass” or the “backward pass.”
B
16) The PERT pessimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
B
17) The standard deviation of project duration is the average of the standard deviation of all activities on the critical path.
B
18) In PERT analysis, the identification of the critical path can be incorrect if a noncritical activity takes substantially more than its expected time.
A
19) Shortening the project’s duration by deleting unnecessary activities is called “project crashing.”
B
20) In project management, crashing an activity must consider the impact on all paths in the network.
A
Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following statements regarding Bechtel is true?
A) Its competitive advantage is project management.
B) Bechtel was the construction contractor for the Hoover Dam.
C) While helping to rebuild Iraq, Bechtel’s crews had to travel under armed escort.
D) Bechtel’s procurement program is global in nature.
E) All of the above are true.
E
2) Which of the following statements about Bechtel is true?
A) Even though Bechtel is over 100 years old, the Kuwaiti oil fields was its first “project.”
B) Bechtel is the world’s premier manager of massive construction and engineering projects.
C) Bechtel’s competitive advantage is supply-chain management.
D) While its projects are worldwide, its network of suppliers is largely in the U.S.
E) All of the above are true.
B
3) Which of the following projects were completed by Bechtel?
A) Hoover Dam
B) Boston Central Artery/Tunnel
C) Rebuilding Kuwait after Iraq’s invasion in 1990
D) Rebuilding Iraq after the U.S. invasion, starting in 2003
E) All of the above were Bechtel projects
E
4) The phases of project management are
A) planning, scheduling, and controlling
B) planning, programming, and budgeting
C) planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling
D) different for manufacturing projects than for service projects
E) GANTT, CPM, and PERT
A
5) Which of the following is not one of the three phases of project management?
A) planning
B) scheduling
C) controlling
D) All of the above are project management phases.
E) Both A and C are not project management phases.
D
6) A project organization
A) is effective for companies with multiple large projects
B) is appropriate only in construction firms
C) often fails when the project cuts across organizational lines
D) is formed to ensure that programs (projects) get proper management and attention
E) A and D are both true
E
7) Which of the following statements regarding project management is false?
A) Gantt charts give a timeline for each of a project’s activities, but they do not adequately illustrate the interrelationships between the activities and the resources.
B) A project organization works best for a project that is temporary but critical to the organization.
C) A project organization works well when the work contains simple, independent tasks.
D) Gantt charts and PERT/CPM are never used together.
E) All of the above are false.
C
8) A code of ethics especially for project managers
A) has been established by the Project Management Institute
B) has been formulated by the Federal government
C) has been formulated by the World Trade Organization
D) is inappropriate, since everyone should use the same guidance on ethical issues
E) does not exist at this time
A
9) Ethical issues that may arise in projects large and small include
A) gifts from contractors
B) exaggerated expense reports
C) compromised safety or health standards to save time or reduce costs
D) pressure to mask delays with false status reports
E) all of the above
E
10) The project organization works best when which of the following conditions are satisfied?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
A) I,II,III,IV,V
B) None of the above conditions need to be satisfied
C) I,III,V
D) I,II,III,V
E) I,III,IV,V
C
11) A project organization that becomes permanent is often referred to as a __________.
A) fixed project organization
B) matrix organization
C) normal organization
D) standard organization
E) none of the above
B
12) WBS stands for which of the following project management tools?
A) Work Break Schedule
B) Work Breakdown Status
C) Work Breakdown Schedule
D) Work Breakdown Structure
E) None of the above
D
13) Match the following steps in Microsoft’s development of Windows 7 to their respective WBS level.
Step
Develop Windows 7 OS
System Testing
Compatible with Windows XP
Develop GUI’s
Module Testing
A) Level 1, Level 2, Level 4, Level 3, Level 3
B) Level 1, Level 2, Level 3, Level 4, Level 5
C) Level 0, Level 1, Level 2, Level 3, Level 4
D) Level 0, Level 2, Level 2, Level 3, Level 3
E) None of the above patterns is correct.
A
14) A combination of effective Gantt chart use and other tactics allowed Delta to cut the average time for a plane layover by what % of the original 60 minute duration?
A) 33%, to 40 minutes
B) 50%, to 30 minutes
C) 20%, to 48 minutes
D) 25%, to 45 minutes
E) 40%, to 36 minutes
A
15) Which of the following statements regarding Gantt charts is true?
A) Gantt charts give a timeline and precedence relationships for each activity of a project.
B) Gantt charts use the four standard spines of Methods, Materials, Manpower, and Machinery.
C) Gantt charts are visual devices that show the duration of activities in a project.
D) Gantt charts are expensive.
E) All of the above are true.
C
16) The main difference between PERT and CPM is that
A) PERT is more accurate than CPM
B) PERT assumes that activity durations are known
C) PERT ignores activity costs
D) CPM assumes that activity durations can vary
E) None of the above are true
E
17) A project manager is interested in crashing a project with variable activity times. Which of the following tools should he/she employ?
A) PERT
B) CPM
C) Gantt Chart
D) either PERT or CPM
E) PERT, CPM, or a Gantt chart are fine
A
18) The difference between AON and AOA networks is that
A) AOA networks sometimes require dummy activities
B) nodes consume no resources or time in AOA networks
C) both are acceptable in practice, however Microsoft Project uses AON
D) in AON nodes designate activities, in AOA arrows designate activities
E) All of the above are true.
E
19) Which of the following statements regarding critical paths is true?
A) The shortest of all paths through the network is the critical path.
B) Some activities on the critical path may have slack.
C) Every network has only one critical path.
D) On a specific project, there can be multiple critical paths, all with exactly the same duration.
E) The duration of the critical path is the average duration of all paths in the project network.
D
20) Which of the following statements regarding CPM is true?
A) The critical path is the shortest of all paths through the network.
B) The critical path is that set of activities that has positive slack.
C) Some networks have no critical path.
D) All activities on the critical path have their LS equal to the maximum EF of all immediate predecessors.
E) All of the above are false.
D
21) A simple CPM network has three activities, A, B, and C. A is an immediate predecessor of B and of C. B is an immediate predecessor of C. The activity durations are A=4, B=3, C=8.
A) The critical path is A-B-C, duration 15.
B) The critical path is A-C, duration 12.
C) The critical path is A-B-C, duration 13.5
D) The critical path cannot be determined without knowing PERT expected activity times.
E) The network has no critical path.
A
22) A simple CPM network has three activities, D, E, and F. D is an immediate predecessor of E and of F. E is an immediate predecessor of F. The activity durations are D=4, E=3, F=8.
A) The critical path is D-E-F, duration 15.
B) The critical path is D-F, duration 12.
C) Slack at D is 3 units.
D) Slack at E is 3 units.
E) Both A and C are true.
A
23) A simple CPM network has five activities, A, B, C, D, and E. A is an immediate predecessor of C and of D. B is also an immediate predecessor of C and of D. C and D are both immediate predecessors of E.
A) There are two paths in this network.
B) There are four paths in this network.
C) There are five paths in this network.
D) There are 25 paths through this network.
E) None of these statements is true.
B
24) Activity D on a CPM network has predecessors B and C, and has successor F. D has duration 6. B’s earliest finish is 18, while C’s is 20. F’s late start is 26. Which of the following is definitely true?
A) B is a critical activity.
B) C is completed before B.
C) D has no slack but is not critical.
D) D is critical and has zero slack.
E) F is critical and has zero slack.
D
25) Which of the following statements regarding CPM networks is true?
A) There can be multiple critical paths on the same project, all with different durations.
B) The early finish of an activity is the latest early start of all preceding activities.
C) The late start of an activity is its late finish plus its duration.
D) If a specific project has multiple critical paths, all of them will have the same duration.
E) All of the above are false.
D
26) Activity R on a CPM network has predecessors M and N, and has successor S. R has duration 5. N’s late finish is 18, while M’s is 20. S’s late start is 14. Which of the following is definitely true?
A) R is critical and has zero slack.
B) R has no slack but is not critical.
C) The set of given times cannot all be possible.
D) N is a critical activity.
E) S is a critical activity.
C
27) Which of the following statements concerning CPM activities is false?
A) The early finish of an activity is the early start of that activity plus its duration.
B) The late finish is the earliest of the late start times of all successor activities.
C) The late start of an activity is its late finish less its duration.
D) The late finish of an activity is the earliest late start of all preceding activities.
E) The early start of an activity is the latest early finish of all preceding activities.
D
28) The time an activity will take assuming very unfavorable conditions is
A) the optimistic time
B) the pessimistic time
C) the activity variance
D) the minimum time
E) exactly twice as long as the expected time
B
34) Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?
A) The optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
B) The optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
C) The probable time estimate is calculated as t = (a + 4m + b).
D) Pessimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
E) Most likely time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
A
35) Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?
A) The expected time is an estimate of the time an activity will require if everything goes as planned.
B) The optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
C) The expected time estimate is calculated as t = (a + 4m + b)/6.
D) The pessimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
E) The most likely time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
C
1) McDonald’s “Made for You” kitchen system represents a strategic layout decision even though an obvious benefit of the system is a dramatic reduction in the inventory of food prepared in advance.
A
2) The objective of layout strategy is to develop an effective and efficient layout that will meet the firm’s competitive requirements.
A
3) The work cell layout, a special arrangement of machinery and equipment to focus on the production of a single product or group of related products, is for manufacturing applications and has no relevance to services.
B
4) The layout approach that addresses trade-offs between space and material handling is called the fixed position layout.
B
5) Utilization of the total “cube” is the dominant consideration in office layout.
B
6) One guideline for a retail layout is to locate high-draw items around the periphery of the store.
A
7) Category management is the use of computer software to evaluate the profitability of merchandising plans.
A
8) Servicescape refers to the physical surrounding in which the service is delivered.
A
9) One guideline for determining the arrangement and space allocation of a retail store is to place high-impulse and high-margin items such as housewares and beauty aids in prominent locations.
A
10) Cross-docking processes items as they are received, rather than placing them in storage; this helps explain why “warehouses” are now called “distribution centers.”
A
11) The dominant problem associated with the fixed-position layout is that workers are fixed in position, and cannot be reassigned.
B
12) A process-oriented layout is the traditional way to support a product differentiation strategy.
A
13) Job lots are groups or batches of parts processed together.
A
14) Process-oriented layouts typically have low levels of work-in-process inventory.
B
15) CRAFT is software for balancing assembly lines.
B
16) The most common tactic to arrange departments in a process-oriented layout is to minimize material handling costs.
A
17) The work cell improves process layouts by reducing floor space and by reducing direct labor cost.
A
18) The balancing of work cells uses the same procedures as the balancing of an assembly line.
B
19) A focused work center is well suited to the production of a large family of products requiring similar processing, even if their demands are not very stable.
B
20) A fabrication line and an assembly line are both types of repetitive and product-focused layout, but only the fabrication line utilizes workstations.
B
21) The biggest advantage of a product layout is its flexibility to handle a varied product mix.
B
22) The minimum number of workstations depends upon the set of task times and the precedence chart, but not the number of units scheduled.
B
23) A product requires 24 separate tasks, and the sum of those task times is 14 minutes; if the cycle time is 2 minutes, then at least 12 workstations will be needed.
B
24) If the schedule calls for the production of 120 units per day and 480 minutes of production time are available per day, the maximum cycle time would be 4 minutes.
A
25) Product-oriented layouts tend to have high levels of work-in-process inventories.
B
26) One drawback of a product-oriented layout is that work stoppage at any one point ties up the whole operation.
A
27) Cycle time is the maximum time that the product is allowed at each workstation.
A
28) Heuristics are problem-solving procedures that mathematically optimize the solution.
B
Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is not one of McDonald’s “seven major innovations”?
A) the Happy Meal
B) drive-through windows
C) breakfast menus
D) play areas
E) “Made by You” kitchen system
A
2) The objective of layout strategy is to
A) minimize cost
B) develop an efficient and effective system that meets competitive requirements
C) maximize flexibility
D) minimize space used
E) minimize material handling costs
B
3) The main goal of retail layout is
A) minimizing material handling cost
B) maximizing high-margin sales
C) minimizing storage costs
D) minimizing space required
E) maximizing profitability per square foot of floor space
E
4) Which layout’s main objective is to equalize the task time for each station?
A) work cell
B) fixed position
C) process oriented
D) job shop
E) product oriented
E
5) A hospital’s layout most closely resembles which of the following?
A) product oriented
B) work cell
C) job shop
D) project
E) none of the above
C
6) Deloitte & Touche solved the empty desk problem by
A) assigning permanent desks
B) implementing a “hoteling” program
C) creating open offices
D) no longer allowing employees to work from home
E) none of the above
B
7) The layout strategy that deals with low-volume, high-variety production is
A) fixed-position layout
B) retail layout
C) warehouse layout
D) office layout
E) none of the above
E
8) “A special arrangement of machinery and equipment to focus on production of a single product or group of related products” describes what layout type?
A) fixed-position layout
B) intermittent production
C) job shop
D) work cell
E) warehouse layout
D
9) A good layout requires determining
A) material handling requirements
B) capacity and space requirements
C) environment and aesthetics
D) cost of moving between various work areas
E) all of the above
E
10) Retail layouts thrive on the notion that
A) handling costs should be minimized
B) storage costs should be minimized
C) average customer visit duration should be maximized
D) space used should be minimized
E) maximizing customer exposure rate maximizes sales and profit
E
11) Slotting fees
A) are charged by retailers to stock a product
B) can amount to as much as $25,000
C) are not a part of Wal-Mart’s business practices
D) can reduce the ability of small businesses to introduce new products
E) all of the above
E
12) Which of the following is not a retail layout practice?
A) high-draw items along periphery
B) distribute power items throughout store
C) end-aisle locations are used to maximize product exposure
D) high-margin and impulse items in prominent locations
E) All of the above are retail layout practices.
E
13) What is the primary reason why retailers tend to locate high-draw items around the periphery of the store?
A) More shelf space for those popular items is available around the periphery.
B) There will be less congestion of customers than there would be in the middle.
C) This arrangement will help to maximize customer exposure to other items in the store.
D) It is easier to put large advertisement signs on the outside walls right next to the items.
E) This arrangement allows customers to travel through the store as quickly as possible.
C
14) The fixed-position layout would be most appropriate in which of the following settings?
A) a fast-food restaurant
B) a doctor’s office
C) a casual dining restaurant
D) a cruise ship assembly facility
E) none of the above
D
15) For which of the following operations would a fixed-position layout be most appropriate?
A) assembling automobiles
B) producing TV sets
C) constructing a highway tunnel or bridge
D) refining of crude oil
E) running an insurance agency
C
16) Because problems with fixed-position layouts are so difficult to solve well onsite, operations managers
A) virtually never employ this layout strategy
B) utilize this approach only for construction projects such as bridges and office towers
C) increase the size of the site
D) often complete as much of the project as possible off-site
E) utilize this layout only for defense contractors
D
17) Which of the following is not one of the factors complicating the techniques for addressing the fixed position layout?
A) The volume of materials is dynamic.
B) At different stages of a project, different materials are needed; therefore, different items become critical as the project develops.
C) Takt times at workstations are dynamic.
D) There is limited space at virtually all sites.
E) All of the above are complicating factors.
C
18) The type of layout which features departments or other functional groupings in which similar activities are performed is
A) process-oriented
B) product-oriented
C) fixed-position
D) mass production
E) unit production
A
19) One of the major advantages of process-oriented layouts is
A) high equipment utilization
B) large work-in-process inventories
C) flexibility in equipment and labor assignment
D) smooth and continuous flow of work
E) none of the above
C
20) The main issue in designing process layouts concerns the relative positioning of
A) safety devices
B) departments
C) raw materials
D) entrances, loading docks, etc.
E) supervisors to their employees
B
21) Which of the following is not an information requirement for solving a load-distance problem?
A) a list of departments or work centers
B) a projection of work flows between the work centers
C) the distance between locations
D) a list of product cycle times
E) the cost per unit of distance to move loads
D
22) The major problem addressed by the process-oriented layout strategy is
A) the movement of material to the limited storage areas around the site
B) requiring frequent contact close to one another
C) the provision of low-cost storage with low-cost material handling
D) minimizing difficulties caused by material flow varying with each product
E) balancing product flow from one work station to the next
D
23) The most common tactic followed in process-layout planning is to arrange departments or work centers so they
A) minimize the cost of skilled labor
B) maximize the machine utilization
C) allocate the available space equally to all the departments
D) minimize the costs of material handling
E) none of the above
D
24) Which type of layout is specifically designed to encourage employees to interact?
A) warehouse
B) job shop
C) open office
D) retail
E) repetitive/continuous
C
25) Which of the following is true for process layouts, but false for product-oriented layouts?
A) low in-process inventories
B) flexibility in equipment and labor assignments
C) low variety of products
D) high volume of output
E) often solved by assembly line balancing
B
26) A big advantage of a process-oriented layout is
A) its flexibility in equipment and labor assignments
B) its low cost
C) the simplified scheduling problem presented by this layout strategy
D) the ability to employ low-skilled labor
E) its high equipment utilization
A
27) One disadvantage of process-oriented layouts arises from
A) the use of special purpose equipment
B) machine maintenance, which tends to seriously degrade the capacity of the entire system
C) the use of specialized material handling equipment
D) the need for stable demand
E) the use of the general purpose machines and equipment
E
28) The typical goal used when developing a process-oriented layout strategy is to
A) minimize the distance between adjacent departments
B) minimize the material handling costs
C) maximize the number of different tasks which can be performed by an individual machine
D) minimize the level of operator skill necessary
E) maximize job specialization
B
29) Which of the following is true of a focused factory?
A) It may be focused in ways other than by product or layout.
B) It may be focused only by processing requirements.
C) It is much like a product facility within an otherwise process facility.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
A
30) In the Office Relationship Chart, which rating reflects the highest importance for two departments’ closeness to each other?
A) A
B) E
C) I
D) O
E) X
A
31) Which of the statements below best describes office layout?
A) groups workers, their equipment, and spaces/offices to provide for movement of information
B) addresses the layout requirements of large, bulky projects such as ships and buildings
C) seeks the best personnel and machine utilization in repetitive or continuous production
D) allocates shelf space and responds to customer behavior
E) deals with low-volume, high-variety production
A
32) Which of the following constitutes a major trend influencing office layouts?
A) downsizing
B) globalization
C) environmental issues
D) off-site employees
E) health issues
D
33) Which of the following does not support the retail layout objective of maximizing customer exposure to products?
A) locate high-draw items around the periphery of the store
B) use prominent locations for high-impulse and high-margin items
C) maximize exposure to expensive items
D) use end-aisle locations
E) convey the store’s mission with the careful positioning of the lead-off department
C
34) Ambient conditions, spatial layout and functionality, and signs, symbols, and artifacts are all
A) indicators of imbalance on an assembly line
B) indicators that cross-docking has been successful
C) elements of customization in a warehouse layout
D) elements of servicescapes
E) elements of successful office layouts
D
35) Balancing low-cost storage with low-cost material handling is important in a(n)
A) fixed-position layout
B) process-oriented layout
C) office layout
D) repetitive and product-oriented layout
E) warehouse layout
E
36) Which of the following requires an information system that provides inbound product identification, its destination, and routing of the product to the designated outbound vehicle?
A) phantom-docking
B) random stocking
C) ASRS
D) customizing
E) cross-docking
E
37) The major problem addressed by the warehouse layout strategy is
A) minimizing difficulties caused by material flow varying with each product
B) requiring frequent contact close to one another
C) addressing trade-offs between space and material handling
D) balancing product flow from one work station to the next
E) none of the above
C
38) The concept of customizing in a warehouse layout
A) is possible, but causes serious loss of oversight of the quality function
B) cannot be considered seriously in today’s high efficiency factories
C) is theoretically sound, but several years away in practice
D) is a new trend in value-added activities in warehouses
E) none of the above
D
39) ASRS stands for
A) automated storage and retrieval system
B) automated storage and recovery system
C) automated scan and recognize system
D) automated scan and retail system
E) none of the above
A
40) Which of the following is true of random stocking?
A) Because items are stocked randomly, accurate inventory records are not necessary.
B) Its results always minimize handling costs.
C) Products have their own permanent storage spot.
D) Each pick can be of only one product.
E) None of the above is true.
E
41) Cross-docking is
A) seldomly placing an item in storage, it is sent straight from incoming to outbound
B) using docks for either incoming or outbound shipments
C) using a single dock to unload and then load the same truck
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
A
42) Which one of the following is not common to repetitive and product-oriented layouts?
A) a high rate of output
B) specialization of labor
C) ability to adjust to changes in demand
D) low unit costs
E) All are common to product-oriented layouts.
C
43) Which of the following is not an advantage of work cells?
A) reduced direct labor cost
B) decreased use of equipment and machinery
C) heightened sense of employee participation
D) reduced raw material and finished goods inventory
E) reduced investment in machinery and equipment
B
44) Balancing a work cell is done
A) before the work cell equipment is sequenced
B) as part of the process of building an efficient work cell
C) before takt time is calculated
D) so that each assembly line workstation has exactly the same amount of work
E) to minimize the total movement in a process layout
B
45) Takt time is
A) the total work time available divided by units required by the consumer
B) the units required divided by workers required
C) a fictional time increment similar to a therblig
D) the same thing as cycle time in a process layout
E) an important consideration in balancing an assembly line
A
46) A process layout problem consists of 4 departments, each of which can be assigned to one of four rooms. The number of different solutions to this problem is __________, although all of them may not have different material handling costs.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 16
D) 24
E) unknown
D
47) Solving a load-distance problem for a process-oriented layout requires that
A) the difficulty of movement be the same for all possible paths
B) pickup and setdown costs vary from department to department
C) the cost to move a load be the same for all possible paths
D) takt time be less than 1
E) CRAFT software examine all possible department configurations
A
48) Which of the following layouts generally has the best machine utilization?
A) fixed-position layout
B) repetitive and product-oriented layout
C) process-oriented layout
D) office layout
E) warehouse layout
B
49) Which of the following is not one of the requirements of cellular production?
A) test (poka-yoke) at each station in the cell
B) adequate volume for high equipment utilization
C) a high level of training, flexibility, and empowerment of employees
D) being self-contained, with its own equipment and resources
E) identification of families of products, often through the use of group technology codes
B
50) The assumption of stability of demand is important for justifying which of the following layout types?
A) fixed-position layout
B) product-oriented layout
C) process-oriented layout
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
B
51) Which layout type assumes an adequate volume for high equipment utilization?
A) product-oriented layout
B) process-oriented layout
C) fixed-position layout
D) retail layout
E) warehouse layout
A
52) A product-oriented layout would be most appropriate for which one of the following businesses?
A) fast food
B) steel-making
C) insurance sales
D) clothing alterations
E) a grocery store
B
53) The assumptions necessary for a successful product layout include all of the following except
A) adequate volume for high equipment utilization
B) standardized product
C) volatile product demand
D) All of the above are appropriate assumptions.
E) None of the above is an appropriate assumption.
C
54) Which of these layouts is most suitable for processing sugar from sugar beets or sugar cane?
A) process-oriented layout
B) fixed-position layout
C) warehouse layout
D) product-oriented layout
E) work cell layout
D
55) Which of the following is true regarding fabrication lines?
A) They are the same thing as assembly lines.
B) They are the same thing as focused factories.
C) They are a special type of process-oriented layout.
D) Balancing their assembly line is more technological than worker oriented.
E) None of the above is true.
D
56) The central problem in product-oriented layout planning is
A) minimizing material handling within workstations
B) minimizing labor movement between workstations
C) equalizing the space allocated to the different workstations
D) maximizing equipment utilization
E) minimizing the imbalance in the work loads among workstations
E
57) A disadvantage of product-oriented layout is that
A) there is a lack of flexibility in handling a variety of products or production rates
B) high volume is required because of the large investment needed to set up the process
C) work stoppage at any one point halts the whole operation
D) All of the above are disadvantages of product-oriented layouts.
E) None of the above is a disadvantage of product-oriented layouts.
D
58) The main advantage of a product-oriented layout is typically
A) high customer exposure rates
B) employability of highly skilled labor
C) high flexibility
D) low capital cost
E) low variable cost per unit
E
59) In a product-oriented layout, the process of deciding how to assign tasks to workstations is referred to as
A) station balancing
B) process balancing
C) task allocation
D) line balancing
E) work allocation
D
60) In assembly line balancing, the theoretical minimum number of workstations is
A) the ratio of the sum of all task times to cycle time
B) always (when a fraction) rounded upward to the next larger integer value
C) not always possible to reach when tasks are actually assigned to stations
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D
61) In assembly line balancing, cycle time (the ratio of available production time to scheduled production) is the
A) minimum time that a product is allowed at each workstation
B) maximum time that a product is allowed at each workstation
C) inverse of the minimum number of workstations needed
D) sum of all the task times divided by the maximum number of workstations
E) equivalent of the maximum task time among all tasks
B
62) A production line is to be designed to make 500 El-More dolls per day. Each doll requires 11 activities totaling 16 minutes of work. The factory operates 750 minutes per day. The required cycle time for this assembly line is
A) one-half minute
B) one and one-half minutes
C) two minutes
D) 5,500 minutes
E) cannot be determined from the information given
B
63) A production line is to be designed for a job with four tasks. The task times are 2.4 minutes, 1.4 minutes, 0.9 minutes, and 1.7 minutes. After line balancing, the largest possible assigned cycle time is ________ and the smallest possible assigned cycle time is ________ minutes.
A) 1.8; 1.4
B) 1.6; 0.9
C) 6.4; 2.4
D) 2.4; 0.9
E) none of these
C
64) Cycle time is computed as
A) desired output divided by the daily operating time
B) daily operating time divided by the product of desired output and the sum of job times
C) the product of desired output and the sum of job times divided by daily operating time
D) daily operating time divided by the scheduled output
E) 1.00 minus station time
D
65) Daily capacity of a product layout is determined by
A) operating time divided by cycle time
B) cycle time divided by operating time
C) operating time divided by total task time
D) total task time divided by cycle time
E) cycle time divided by total task time
A
66) Four hundred and eighty minutes of production time are available per day. Scheduled production is 120 units per day. What is the required cycle time?
A) 4 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 6 minutes
D) 7 minutes
E) 8 minutes
A
67) A production line is to be designed for a product whose completion requires 21 minutes of work. The factory works 400 minutes per day. Can an assembly line with five workstations make 100 units per day?
A) yes, with exactly 100 minutes to spare
B) no, but four workstations would be sufficient
C) no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
D) yes, but the line’s efficiency is very low
E) cannot be determined from the information given
C
68) Four hundred and eighty minutes of production time are available per day. The schedule calls for the production of 80 units per day. Each unit of the product requires 30 minutes of work. What is the theoretical minimum number of workstations?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
D
69) Which of the following is not a heuristic rule for assigning tasks to workstations in a product layout?
A) longest tasks first
B) in order of most number of following tasks
C) median tasks first
D) shortest tasks first
E) in accordance with positional weight
C
70) If a layout problem is solved by use of “heuristics,” this means that
A) there was no other way to solve the problem
B) no computer software was available
C) the problem has only a few alternatives to evaluate
D) no optimum solution exists
E) a “satisfactory” solution is acceptable
E
71) Which of the following is a common heuristic for assembly line balancing?
A) debits near the windows, credits near the door
B) manufacturers locate near materials, retailers locate near customers
C) earliest due date first
D) ranked positional weight
E) none of the above
D
72) An assembly line consists of 21 tasks grouped into 5 workstations. The sum of the 21 task times is 85 minutes. The largest assigned cycle time is 20 minutes. The efficiency of this line is
A) 4.2 percent
B) 17 percent
C) 85 percent
D) 100 percent
E) none of the above
C
73) An assembly line consists of 158 tasks grouped into 32 workstations. The sum of all task times is 105 minutes. The largest assigned cycle time is 4 minutes. The efficiency of this line is approximately
A) 8 percent
B) 21 percent
C) 82 percent
D) 100 percent
E) none of the above
C

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