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Final: 70-411 Chapter: Chapters 1-22

automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media
Windows Deployment Services (WDS) is a software platform and technology that allows you to perform which function?
Transport Server and Deployment Server
Which two role services does the WDS Role include?
It’s used to boot to a WDS Server to install a preinstallation environment.
What role does preboot execution environment (PXE) play in WDS?
What is the name of the Windows Server 2012 installation DVD boot image file?
It removes a system’s name and SID.
What function does the System Preparation Utility (Sysprep.exe) perform on a system?
answer files
What type of XML file do you need to create and add information to when performing an unattended operating system installation via WDS?
How do you mount a Windows image using Dism.exe so that you can update it?
dynamic driver provisioning
Which feature of Windows Server allows you to add driver packages to WDS and then deploy them?
Windows 8
Windows PE 4.0 is based on which operating system?
Where in a system do you configure PXE?
The initial configuration of WDS includes setup of what other server?
It presents the Windows Welcome Wizard on the next boot.
When using sysprep on the master computer, why do you include the /oobe parameter?
on bootable media
Where do you place a discover image to ensure proper deployment?
Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK)
To convert a discover image to a bootable ISO image, what non-included component do you need to download and install?
System Image Manager (SIM)
What Microsoft tool do you use to create and manage Windows setup answer files?
out-of-band patches
What kind of updates are released on an as-required basis and are not part of the standard release cycle?
Be sure that you have a good backup.
What critical step you should perform before applying patches or updates?
Windows Updates, especially the Automatic Updates feature of Windows Updates, are for what kind of environments?
Distributed and Central
You can configure Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) in one of two modes: Autonomous or Replica. Autonomous provides one type of management and Replica provides another. What are the two management types?
What is the default port number for WSUS synchronization?
Client-side and Server-side targeting
What two ways can you assign computers to groups in WSUS?
Test the updates on your own systems before approving for rollout.
WSUS allows you to automatically approve every update, but you shouldn’t necessarily do that. What should you do before approving updates to be installed?
net start wuauserv
Which of the following is the proper method of starting the Windows Update service?
the SCCM agent
To get the full capability of SCCM, which component must you install on each system on your network?
It is a tested, cumulative set of hotfixes, security updates, critical updates, and updates, as well as additional fixes for problems found internally since the release of the product.
What is the definition of a service pack?
Internet Explorer proxy settings
If Windows Update fails to retrieve updates, what should you check first?
speed and load between sites and the number of clients
The number of WSUS servers you need is determined by the number of sites you have and what two other factors?
another WSUS server on your network
WSUS can retrieve updates directly from Microsoft or from what other source?
All Computers
By default, to which computer group are computers assigned in WSUS?
Other than the default computer group, how many other groups may a computer be assigned to in WSUS?
Two minutes
When you set a service to start automatically with delayed start, how long is the delay?
When creating service accounts, you should follow the rule of what type of rights and permissions?
Use separate accounts for both services.
If you install SQL Server and a third-party backup service on the same system, what rule should you follow when creating service accounts?
Save useful event filters as custom views that can be reused.
Which of the following tasks does the Event Viewer MMC snap-in allow you to perform?
log viewer
The Event Viewer is essentially what kind of tool?
Send an email, start a program, and display a message.
What types of tasks can you add to events?
event subscription
Microsoft’s new Event Viewer allows you to collect events from remote computers and store them locally. By what name is this collection of events known?
event receiving
What function does a computer perform when it’s issued the command wecutil qc?
Stability Index
The Reliability Monitor provides a range of numbers to help you evaluate the reliability of a computer. What is the name of this range of numbers?
Enable the Reliability Monitor.
What do you need to do if you run the Reliability Monitor but it is blank?
during normal usage
To examine performance correctly, you must establish a performance baseline. When do you perform this task?
that you might have a bottleneck
What can Task Manager tell you about performance?
quick glance
Task Manager is not a definitive performance tool because it gives you what kind of look at computer performance?
What term describes an instance of a program being executed?
services and processes
Resource Monitor is a powerful tool for understanding how your system resources are used by what two system consumers?
What are DFS Namespace shared folders referred to in relation to the virtual folders?
where the namespaces are stored
What is the primary difference between domain-based namespace and stand-alone namespace?
The default namespace mode is Windows Server 2008, which supports up to 50,000 folders. How many folders does using non-Windows Server 2008 provide?
What term is defined as “an ordered list of servers or targets that a client computer receives from a domain controller or namespace server when the user accesses a namespace root or a DFS folder with targets”?
NTFS and shared folder permissions
How do you secure DFS Namespaces?
additional storage space required
What is the primary disadvantage of DFS Replication?
It replicates deleted, changed, and corrupted files.
DFS Replication does not replace the need for backups because of what feature of replication?
full mesh
By default, replication groups use what type of topology to replicate to all members of the group?
Which replication topology is more efficient than the default replication topology and allows you to set bandwidth, timing, and directionality to your configuration?
remote differential compression (RDC)
What compression algorithm does Microsoft use to limit the amount of bandwidth used in DFS Replication?
last-writer wins
What type of resolution model does DFS Replication use to resolve simultaneous-write conflicts?
660 MB
What is the default quota size of the Conflict and Deleted folder?
staging folder
What type of special cache folder does each replication folder use to hold files ready to be replicated?
remote differential compression (RDC)
If you want to save on CPU and disk I/O but consume more network bandwidth for replication, which DFS feature can you disable?
Change share permissions. AND Disable one of the connections.
What can you do to change bidirectional replication into unidirectional? (Choose two.)
What type of service is the Windows File Server Resource Manager?
It limits the number of gigabytes allocated to a volume or folder.
What effect does using quotas in File Server Resource Manager have?
the entire folder and its subtree
Placing a quota limit on a folder applies that limit to what part of the folder?
quota template
When you create quotas, you are recommended to use what built-in feature to assist you?
File Screening
What technology did Microsoft develop to combat the storage of storage-using and potentially illegal files on corporate servers?
Which screening technique prevents a user from saving defined unauthorized files?
file screen exception
Some exemptions might be required for certain groups to store otherwise restricted file types. What type of exemption can you set up on folders?
What feature can you use to simplify the management of file screens?
Storage Reports
What FSRM feature can you use to show the state of file server volumes, quotas, and disallowed files?
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
What does the acronym SMTP stand for?
What group must you be a member of to enable SMTP?
By default, where are storage reports saved?
To allow you to archive unused files
You can generate several different reports from FSRM. One of them gives you a list of Least Recently Accessed Files. What would be the purpose of that report?
apply the template to all derived file screens
When you change a file template and save the changes, you have the option to do which one of the following?
to notify users that they have reached the quota limit
What is the purpose of setting soft quotas?
Encryption is the process of converting data into what kind of format?
After a file has been encrypted, it is stored in what format?
An encrypted file can be converted back to its original format by a process known as what?
Single-key encryption is also known as what kind of encryption?
Public-key cryptography uses how many keys?
What’s the status of your data if someone has your public key?
to store passwords in a non-readable format
What is one purpose of using hash function encryption?
What key length is considered to be minimally strong for encryption algorithms?
They’re encrypted with the parent folder.
What happens to files and subfolders within an EFS encrypted folder?
You can encrypt individual files, but Microsoft recommends encrypting at what level?
EFS encryption is what type of feature that can be enabled or disabled at will, similar in effect to read-only, compression, or hidden?
The new files become encrypted.
What happens if you move unencrypted files into an encrypted folder?
If you’re a command-line user, what command will encrypt files and folders?
Trusted Platform Module
What built-in computer hardware feature makes BitLocker Drive Encryption far more secure than other forms of folder or file-based encryption?
On what type of computer is BitLocker not commonly used?
to verify a user’s identity
Authentication is used for what purpose?
to grant access to a user
Authorization is used for what purpose?
recording user’s actions
Auditing is used for what purpose?
High levels of auditing can affect system performance.
Why is choosing what to audit, instead of auditing everything that a user does, a good idea?
Before Windows 2008 R2, only nine basic audit settings existed. Windows Server 2012 introduces a total of how many audit subsettings?
so that you can focus on important audit items
What is the purpose of implementing new audit subsettings?
Audit policies might cause conflicts or erratic behavior.
Why should you avoid using basic audit policy settings and advanced audit policy settings together?
Which command do you use to manage auditing at the command prompt?
in Security logs in Event Viewer
Where can you view audit events?
Global Object Access Auditing
Which auditing feature allows you to define computer-wide system access control lists for the file system or the registry?
Removable Storage Access
By using what type of policy can you track, limit, or deny a user’s ability to use removable storage devices such as USB drives in Windows Server 2012?
Group Policy Editor
Which utility do you use to access advanced audit policy settings?
What type of audit event notifies you that an account failed to log on?
Privilege Use
Shutting down the system is an example of what kind of audit event?
When resetting audit settings back to basic mode, what file must you remove as part of the process?
IP addresses
The Domain Name System (DNS) works much like a phone book to associate URLs (names) with what kinds of numbers?
Which TCP/UDP port does the DNS service use to communicate?
Fully Qualified Domain Name
What does the acronym FQDN stand for?
Which one of the following is an example of an FQDN?
hierarchical distributed
What type of structure does DNS have?
Which of the following is an example of a top-level domain?
Which of the following is an example of a second-level domain?
A specific, individual computer or other network device in a domain is known as what?
DNS resolver
What is another term for DNS client?
forward lookup zone
Which type of DNS zone resolves host names to IP addresses?
By using the Active Directory’s integrated zone, DNS follows what kind of model?
fault tolerance
What is one of the primary advantages to using Active Directory to store DNS information?
They allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable ones.
What is one advantage of subdomains?
necessary resource entries
A stub zone is a zone copy that contains only what type of records?
It speeds DNS queries by building a DNS request cache.
What is the primary advantage of a caching-only DNS server?
canonical name or CNAME
What is another designation for an Alias?
the zone serial number
A Start of Authority record specifies what kind of information about a zone?
a CNAME record
If you have a server named server1.blah.com, want to use it as your web server, and have requests point to www.blah.com, what kind of DNS record would you create?
reverse lookup zones
Before creating PTR records, what DNS objects must you create?
the length of time a record remains in DNS cache
What does Time to Live (TTL) mean in DNS parlance?
Round-robin DNS is a term that refers to what kind of distribution mechanism for DNS responses to queries?
ipconfig /all
Which command do you use to verify local DNS settings?
It places you into nslookup’s interactive mode.
What does issuing the nslookup command with no parameters do on your system?
SOA record
Which DNS record contains the serial number for the zone?
AD server
Which of the following is an example of an SRV record?
delete resource records
You can use the dnscmd command to create zones. What other tasks can you perform with it?
maps a host name to a single IPv6 address
If an A record maps a host name to an IP address, what does an AAAA record do?
Which one of the following is correct for querying a PTR record?
Execute ipconfig /registerdns.
How can you force a system to update its DNS record?
The PTR record doesn’t exist.
If you issue the command nslookup and get no response, but then issue nslookup server1 and receive as a response, what do you know is wrong?
They no longer supply acceptable bandwidth.
Why are phone lines and ISDN not used today for remote access services (RAS)?
two network interface cards
What special hardware configuration should a RAS server have?
for enhanced security
Why would you set Verify Caller ID on a remote dial-up connection for a user?
Create and distribute an executable file that contains all the settings.
What is the most efficient way to deploy VPN (virtual private network) configurations to hundreds of users?
if your users have laptop computers and work from home or office
When would you want to use a split tunnel for users?
What term is defined as private data placed in a packet with a header containing routing information that allows the data to traverse a transit network, such as the Internet?
You can’t ping that interface.
What is the result of enabling security on the RRAS interface in your RAS server?
VPN traffic is encrypted.
Why use a VPN for client-to-server connections over the Internet?
by cryptographic checksum
How is data verified when transferred through the Internet?
Of the four VPN tunneling protocols, which has the weakest encryption?
Which authentication method is weakest (least secure)?
Which authentication protocol allows you to change an expired password during the connection process?
Which VPN protocol provides constant connectivity?
for light traffic on small networks
When is it appropriate to use Windows Server 2012 as a router between two networks?
through the use of RIP
How are routing tables created dynamically?
Windows 7/Windows Server 2008 R2
DirectAccess was introduced with which workstation/server pair?
What kind of connectivity does DirectAccess establish between workstation and server?
What type of server is the network location server (NLS)?
Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol
What does the acronym ISATAP stand for?
Remote Access Management Console
What utility do you use to configure DirectAccess?
two consecutive public IP addresses
Windows Server 2012 varies from the Windows Server 2008 R2 implementation in that it does not require which one of the following?
The DirectAccess server must be part of an Active Directory domain.
What is the most basic requirement for a DirectAccess implementation?
If the client cannot reach the DirectAccess server using 6to4 or Teredo tunneling, the client tries to connect using what protocol?
shows the NRPT rules as configured on the group policy
What does the netsh namespace show policy command do?
determines the results of network location detection and the IPv6 addresses of the intranet DNS servers
What does the netsh namespace show effectivepolicy command do?
seamless and always on
What kind of connectivity does DirectAccess provide between client computers and network resources?
DirectAccess is for clients connected to which network?
computer and user credentials
How do the DirectAccess server and DirectAccess client authenticate each other?
Windows Server 2008
Which one of the following operating systems may not act as a DirectAccess client?
an AD domain
In addition to meeting operating system requirements, a DirectAccess client must be a member of what?
a RADIUS proxy server
What kind of RADIUS server is placed between the RADIUS server and RADIUS clients?
What process determines what a user is permitted to do on a computer or on a network?
Network Policy Server
What is a RADIUS server known as in Microsoft parlance?
1812 and 1813
Which ports do Microsoft RADIUS servers use officially?
the NPS server
When an access client contacts a VPN server or wireless access point, a connection request is sent to what system?
the access server
Which system, in a RADIUS infrastructure, handles the switchboard duties of relaying requests to the RADIUS server and back to the client?
an Accounting-Response to the access server
What is the final step in the authentication, authorization, and accounting scenario between an access client and the RADIUS server?
RADIUS server
To configure RADIUS service load balancing, you must have more than one kind of what system per remote RADIUS server group?
Which parameter specifies the order of importance of the RADIUS server to the NPS proxy server?
Using what feature can streamline the creation and setup of RADIUS servers?
the type of service and the user it’s delivered to
What information does the Accounting-Start message contain?
the RADIUS accounting server
Which system is the destination for Accounting-Start messages?
What type of NPS authentication is recommended over password authentication?
Usernames and passwords are sent in plain text.
Why is password-based authentication not recommended?
a certificate authority
Where do you get certificates for authentication purposes?
who, when, and how
An NPS policy is a set of permissions or restrictions that determine what three aspects of network connectivity?
group membership
Which variable can be set to authorize or deny a remote connection?
The default connection request policy uses NPS as what kind of server?
Where is the default connection policy set to process all authentication requests?
how IP addresses are assigned
What is the last setting in the Routing and Remote Access IP settings?
What command-line utility is used to import and export NPS templates?
To which type of file do you export an NPS configuration?
when the source NPS database has a higher version number than the version number of the destination NPS database
When should you not use the command-line method of exporting and importing the NPS configuration?
who is authorized to connect AND the connection circumstances for connectivity
Network policies determine what two important connectivity constraints?
When the Remote Access server finds an NPS network policy with conditions that match the incoming connection attempt, the server checks any _______________ that have been configured for the policy.
If a remote connection attempt does not match any configured constraints, what does the Remote Access server do to the connection?
Shared Secrets AND Health Policies AND RADIUS Clients
Identify the correct NPS templates. Select all that apply.
Client May Request an IP Address AND Server Must Supply an IP Address
Which two of the following are Routing and Remote Access IP settings?
Server Settings Determine IP Address Assignment
Which Routing and Remote Access IP setting is the default setting?
MPPE 128-Bit
Which of the following is the strongest type of encryption?
a computer’s overall health
Network Access Protection (NAP) is Microsoft’s software for controlling network access of computers based on what?
Because NAP is provided by _________, you need to install _________ to install NAP.
DHCP enforcement is not available for what kind of clients?
Anti-virus/anti-malware servers AND Software update servers
Identify two remediation server types.
What type of Active Directory domain controller is recommended to minimize security risks for remediation servers?
When you fully engage NAP for remediation enforcement, what mode do you place the policy in?
netsh nap client show state
To verify a NAP client’s configuration, which command would you run?
Security Center AND NAP Agent
Which two components must a NAP client have enabled in order to use NAP?
to provide user information in case of a compliance failure
Why do you need a web server as part of your NAP remediation infrastructure?
the NAP Server Event Viewer
Where do you look to find out which computers are blocked and which are granted access via NAP?
NAP-compliant AND NAP-noncompliant
Health policies are in pairs. What are the members of the pair? Select two.
the computers are running Windows Update
You should restrict access only for clients that don’t have all available security updates installed if what situation exists?
The computer is isolated.
What happens to a computer that isn’t running Windows Firewall?
network policies AND connection request policies
Health policies are connected to what two other policies?
pass all SHV checks
To use the NAP-compliant policy, the client must do what?
locally connected computers
Which computers are not affected by VPN enforcement?
What is the default authentication protocol for non-domain computers?
NT LAN Manager
What does the acronym NTLM stand for?
sending a password to the server
NTLM uses a challenge-response mechanism for authentication without doing what?
a secure network authentication protocol
What type of protocol is Kerberos?
secret key
Kerberos security and authentication are based on what type of technology?
5 minutes
What is the default maximum allowable time lapse between domain controllers and client systems for Kerberos to work correctly?
service class, host name, and port number
Which three components make up a service principal name (SPN)?
The client receives an access denied error.
What happens if a client submits a service ticket request for an SPN that does not exist in the identity store?
Which tool can you use to add SPNs to an account?
Domain Administrator privileges AND the editor runs from the domain controller
What are the two restrictions for adding SPNs to an account?
Identify another utility that you can use to add SPNs to an account.
What type of account is an account under which an operating system, process, or service runs?
using strong passwords AND granting the least rights possible
When creating accounts for operating systems, processes, and services, you should always configure them with what two things in mind?
automatic password management AND simplified SPN management
Name two benefits to using Managed Service Accounts (MSAs).
group MSAs
By default, which service accounts will the Windows PowerShell cmdlets manage?
Active Directory database
The domain controllers are the computers that store and run the _______________.
How many PDC Emulators are required, if needed, in a domain?
You have a single domain.
You do not place the infrastructure master on a global catalog server unless what situation exists?
When you add attributes to an Active Directory object, what part of the domain database are you actually changing?
Operations Master
Which Active Directory object is defined as a specialized domain controller that performs certain tasks so that multi-master domain controllers can operate and synchronize properly?
at least two
How many global catalogs are recommended for every organization?
Install Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). AND Execute dcpromo from Server Manager.
What two things must you do to a Windows Server to convert it to a domain controller?
in a remote site
Where are you most likely to see a Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
seize schema master AND seize PDC
Which of the following commands issued at the fsmo maintenance prompt would successfully seize the role of an Operations Master Holder? Select all that apply.
Windows Server 2012
Beginning with which server version can you safely deploy domain controllers in a virtual machine?
What utility must you run on a cloned system to ensure that the clone receives its own SID?
writable domain controller
Which type of system must you connect to and use to make changes to Active Directory?
Windows Server 2003
Which version of Windows Server introduced incremental universal group membership replication?
domain local groups, global groups, and universal groups
What are the three types of groups in a domain?
logon AND object searches AND universal group membership
The global catalog stores a partial copy of all objects in the forest. What are the reasons for keeping that partial copy? Select all that apply.
It exports/imports Active Directory information.
What function does the CSVDE tool perform?
If a single domain controller’s AD database becomes corrupt, which type of restore should you perform on it?
To perform an authoritative restore, into what mode must you reboot the domain controller?
a unique identifier for a snapshot
What is a GUID?
the Active Directory Recycle Bin
What utility first appeared in Windows Server 2008 R2 that allows you to undelete Active Directory containers and objects?
every 12 hours
By default, how often does Active Directory “garbage collection” occur?
Reset the user’s password.
After you undelete a user account with the LDP utility, what action do you need to perform?
low-level database corruption
In interactive mode, what aspect of AD can you check with the ntdsutil integrity command?
Uninstall Active Directory Domain Services.
What is the proper procedure for removing a domain controller from Active Directory?
metadata cleanup
Which of the following ntdsutil commands cleans up metadata?
its distinguished name
To perform an authoritative restore of an object or subtree, what bit of information do you need to know about the object?
a reference to an attribute within another object
When you do an authoritative restore process, a back-links file is created. What is a back-links file?
You have to enable the AD Recycle Bin. AND You have to set the AD forest to Windows Server 2008 R2 or higher.
Before you can use the Active Directory Recycle Bin, what two actions do you have to perform?
Restartable Active Directory Domain Services
Windows Server 2012 introduces a new time-saving feature when performing tasks such as AD defragmentation. What is that feature?
Which utility do you use to defragment Active Directory?
history AND length AND complexity AND age
What are examples of password policies? Select all that apply.
Why primarily are account lockout policies put into place?
What is the default setting for password history?
What is the default minimum password length in characters?
domain administrators
By default, who has read/write capability to the Default Domain Policy?
Assign the PSOs to a global security group and add users to the group.
How should you assign Password Settings objects (PSOs) to users?
centralized management
What is the primary advantage of using Group Policies in a domain environment?
editing local security policies
What is the secpol.msc utility used for?
how many days a user must wait before a password reset
What does the minimum password age setting control?
because administrator accounts carry more security sensitivity than users do
Why should administrator passwords change more often than user passwords?
0 to 24
What is the range of password history settings?
Start with a sentence and then add numbers and special characters.
What is an easy method of creating a strong password?
It means that passwords never expire, which is a major security problem. AND It means that you’ve disabled password aging.
Why is a setting of 0 for maximum password age not a good idea? Check all that apply.
Password Policy AND Account Lockout Policy AND Kerberos Policy
Account policies contain various subsets. Which of the following are legitimate subsets of account policies? Check all that apply.
Default Domain Policy
Which feature affects all users in the domain, including domain controllers?
Local group policy, Site, Domain, OU
In which order are Group Policy objects (GPOs) processed?
600 seconds
What is the default timeout value for GPOs to process on system startup?
Processing is hidden from the user.
GPOs are processed on computer startup and after logon. Why is the user never aware of the processing?
The computer establishes a secure link to the domain controller.
What is the first step in the GPO processing order?
The downward flow of group policies is known as what feature of GPOs?
by precedence
If a site, domain, or OU has multiple GPOs, how are the group policies processed?
security group filter AND WMI filter
Which two filters can you use to control who or what receives a group policy?
Allow Read AND Allow Apply
For users to receive GPO settings, they must have which two permissions to the GPO?
Apply Group
By default, which GPO permissions are all authenticated users given?
when the policy is processed
At what point are WMI filters evaluated?
To use WMI filters, you must have one domain controller running which version of Windows Server or higher?
How many WMI filters can be configured for a GPO?
What kind of group policies should you enable for student computers?
to analyze the cumulative effect of GPOs AND for GPO troubleshooting
What is the primary purpose of running the Group Policy Results Wizard? Check all that apply.
Windows 7 AND Windows 8
Which of the following operating systems can have its security settings managed by using security templates? Select all that apply.
using Active Directory GPOs AND using the Security Configuration and Analysis snap-in
Which two of the following methods can you use to deploy security templates?
the ADM format for newer operating systems
What is an ADMX file?
a repository for Administrative Templates
What is the Central Store?
Keyword Filters AND Requirements Filters
Which of the following are legitimate Administrative Template Property Filters? Select all that apply.
Windows Installer
What is the name of the software component used for installation, maintenance, and removal of software on Windows?
What is the filename extension for the files in which installation information is stored?
They deploy customized software installation files
What are MST files used for?
Convert it to an MSI file
Windows Installer cannot install .exe files. To distribute a software package that installs with an .exe file, what must you do to it?
System Services AND Registry Permissions AND File System Permissions
The Security template allows you to configure which of the following settings? Select all that apply.
Where is the default location for ADMX files?
Not Configured AND Enabled AND Disabled
Identify all possible states of an Administrative Template.
What language are ADMX files based on?
in individual GPOs
Unlike ADM files, ADMX files are not stored where?
in the SYSVOL directory
Where is the Central Store located?
domain administrators
Which domain users are automatically granted permissions to perform Group Policy Management tasks?
if they’ve become corrupted AND if someone deleted one of the policies
Why would you ever want or need to reset the domain policy and the domain controller policy to the default settings? Select all that apply.
Allow Read AND Allow Apply
A user must have which two existing permissions for new permissions to be applied to their accounts for GPO delegation?
Disallow Apply
If you don’t want a GPO to apply, which group policy permission do you apply to a user or group?
that all User Rights Assignments will be replaced
When you’re about to reset domain policy and domain controllers policy back to default with the dcgpofix.exe command, what final warning are you given before you accept the change?
Group Policy Management Editor
Which utility do you use to create GPO preferences?
For GPP editing states, which key do you use to toggle Enable Current?
Select the Stop processing items option on the Common tab.
How do you stop processing a preference if an error occurs?
Which Windows extension allows you to copy registry settings and apply them to other computers? create, replace, or delete registry settings?
.ini files
Which Windows extension allows you to add, replace, or delete sections or properties in configuration settings or setup information files?
? AND *
To copy, replace, update, or delete files, you can use wildcard characters. Which wildcard characters can you use? Select all that apply.
Shortcut AND Drive Maps
If you need to provide users access to a common network location, which GPP would you use? Select all that apply.
GPP Client-Side Extensions
To support GPPs on older Windows versions (Server and Workstation), you have to install what component from Microsoft?
the Registry Wizard
Which component allows you to create multiple Registry preference items based on registry settings that you select?
computer name AND CPU speed
Which of the following are possible targets for individual preferences? Select all that apply.
item-level targeting
Which term describes changing the scope of individual preference items so that the preference items apply only to selected users or computers?
Windows Firewall applet AND Documents folder AND Microsoft Excel AND Printer
Which items can you configure shortcuts to in performing GPP deployments? Select all that apply.
Registry AND Shortcuts AND Folders
Windows Settings has multiple preference extensions. Identify all that apply.
Replace AND Delete
When working with Network Drive Mapping Preferences, which preference behaviors delete drive mappings? Select all that apply.
2008 AND 2008 R2 AND 2012
GPP can be configured on domain controllers running which version of Windows Server? Select all that apply.

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