logo image

IS

As discussed in the chapter opening case, the Giants’ new ticketing information systems is an effort to achieve which of the primary business objectives?
A) Customer and supplier intimacy
B) Improved decision making
C) Operational excellence
D) New products and services
B
Journalist Thomas Friedman’s description of the world as “flat” referred to:
A) the flattening of economic and cultural advantages of developed countries.
B) the use of the Internet and technology for instantaneous communication.
C) the reduction in travel times and the ubiquity of global exchange and travel.
D) the growth of globalization.
A
The six important business objectives of information system investment include all of the following except:
A) competitive advantage.
B) employee morale.
C) improved decision making.
D) survival.
B
The use of information systems because of necessity describes the business objective of:
A) survival.
B) improved business practices.
C) competitive advantage.
D) improved flexibility.
A
All of the following choices describe ways for a company to achieve a competitive advantage, except:
A) producing a superior product and charging less than competitors.
B) implementing information systems to support better management decision making.
C) garnering more sales and profits than your competitors.
D) using information systems to create new and popular products that your competitors cannot duplicate.
B
Verizon’s implementation of a Web-based digital dashboard to provide managers with real-time information, such as customer complaints, is an example of:
A) improved flexibility.
B) improved decision making.
C) improved efficiency.
D) customer and supplier intimacy.
B
The move of retail banking to use ATMs after Citibank unveiled its first ATMs illustrates the information system business objective of:
A) improved efficiency.
B) customer and supplier intimacy.
C) survival.
D) competitive advantage.
C
An information system can be defined technically as a set of interrelated components that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and distribute information to support:
A) decision making and control in an organization.
B) communications and data flow.
C) managers analyzing the organization’s raw data.
D) the creation of new products and services.
A
The three activities in an information system that produce the information organizations use to control operations are:
A) information retrieval, research, and analysis.
B) input, output, and feedback.
C) input, processing, and output.
D) data analysis, processing, and feedback.
C
All of the following describe the effects of globalization except:
A) significant decreases in operating costs.
B) reduction of labor costs through outsourcing.
C) ability to find low-cost suppliers.
D) increases in transaction costs.
D
The average number of tickets sold daily online is an example of:
A) input.
B) raw data.
C) meaningful information.
D) output.
C
Output:
A) is feedback that has been processed to create meaningful information.
B) is information that is returned to appropriate members of the organization to help them evaluate the input stage.
C) transfers raw data to the people who will use it or to the activities for which it will be used.
D) transfers processed information to the people who will use it or to the activities for which it will be used.
D
Converting raw data into a more meaningful form is called:
A) capturing.
B) processing.
C) organizing.
D) feedback.
B
An example of raw data from a national chain of automobile stores would be:
A) average of 13 Toyotas sold daily in Kentucky in 2007.
B) 300 Toyota RAV4s sold during fourth quarter 2007 in Kentucky.
C) 1 Toyota RAV4 sold January 7, 2008 in Louisville, Kentucky – $28000.
D) annual sales of Toyota RAV4s increased 2.4 percent
C
Electronic computers and related software programs are the technical foundation, the tools and materials, of:
A) all business procedures.
B) information accumulation.
C) modern information systems.
D) all industrialized countries.
C
The field that deals with behavioral issues, as well as technical issues surrounding the development, use, and impact of information systems used by managers and employees in the firm, is called:
A) information systems literacy.
B) information systems architecture.
C) management information systems.
D) information technology infrastructure.
C
A hierarchy:
A) results in a clear-cut division of labor.
B) is composed primarily of experts trained for different functions.
C) is a pyramid structure of rising authority and responsibility.
D) is used primarily in large organizations to define job roles
C
In a hierarchical organization, the upper levels consist of:
A) managerial and professional workers.
B) managerial, professional, and technical workers.
C) professional and operational workers.
D) managerial, professional, and operational workers
B
The fundamental set of assumptions, values, and ways of doing things that has been accepted by most of a company’s members is called its:
A) culture.
B) environment.
C) atmosphere.
D) values.
A
All of the following can be considered managerial responsibilities except:
A) making action plans to solve organizational problems.
B) creating new products and services.
C) designing new information systems.
D) allocating human resources to coordinate the work to be done
C
Data management technology consists of:
A) the physical hardware and media used by an organization for storing data.
B) the detailed, preprogrammed instructions that control and coordinate the computer hardware components in an information system.
C) the software governing the organization of data on physical storage media.
D) the hardware and software used to transfer data.
C
A database that receives employee manual input of customer names and addresses is riddled with errors and you have been charged with rectifying the situation. In taking an organizational perspective of this problem, you would be considering:
A) the skill levels of the employees inputting the data.
B) the training given to the employees inputting the data.
C) the types of reviews in place for selecting data input personnel.
D) the types of automatic error checking provided by the input software.
C
Intranets:
A) are based on mainframe technology.
B) are multiple networks joined together.
C) are typically used to communicate with the business’s trusted vendors.
D) use Internet technology for a private company network.
D
The first step in the four-step model of business problem solving is:
A) agreeing that a problem exists.
B) identifying the problem.
C) outlining the problem’s causes.
D) assigning the problem to a problem solver.
B
Inadequate database capacity is an example of the ________ dimension of business problems.
A) technology
B) organizational
C) people
D) management
A
Legal and regulatory compliance is an example of the ________ dimension of business problems.
A) management
B) organizational
C) people
D) technology
C
You are a new manager at a plumbing supply manufacturer where there is an unusually high number of returns for a new aerator for a high-end faucet in production. In viewing the problem you determine that the primary cause is the improperly designed die cast for the aerator. Which dimension of a business problem does this reflect?
A) People
B) Technology
C) Management
D) Organizational
A
Poor business processes is an example of the ________ dimension of business problems.
A) management
B) organizational
C) people
D) infrastructure
B
The owners of Speed-EZ, a new bike messenger service, are concerned about how they will manage their messengers once they have left the office. This is a business problem that falls into the:
A) management dimension.
B) people dimension.
C) organizational dimension.
D) technology dimension.
B
Flapjack Flats, a new pancake chain, is having difficulty finding pancake chefs. This is a business problem that falls into the:
A) management dimension.
B) people dimension.
C) organizational dimension.
D) technical dimension.
C
In choosing the best solution for a business problem, one of the most important considerations is:
A) change management.
B) existing resources and skills.
C) employee training.
D) outcome measurement.
B
The final step in the four-step model of business problem solving is:
A) outcome.
B) implementation.
C) change management.
D) feedback.
B
Which of the following would not be considered part of the implementation phase of problem solving?
A) Change management
B) Purchasing hardware for an information systems solution
C) Training an employee on new systems software
D) Evaluating a selection of software packages for implementing a new business process
D
The failure of NASA’s initial solution to preventing the space shuttle shedding foam illustrates:
A) the importance of training employees on new business processes.
B) the need to prepare for measuring outcomes of a business solution.
C) the continuous nature of problem solving.
D) the need to quickly adapt to new technological innovations.
C
One of the most frequent errors in problem solving is:
A) rushing to judgment.
B) not being aware of personal limitations.
C) being too doubtful.
D) following a rote pattern of decision making.
A
A major criterion in deciding the most important perspectives of a business problem is:
A) implementation.
B) change management.
C) usefulness.
D) organizational needs.
C
Which of the following is an example of a business using information systems to create new products and services?
A) Apple’s creation of the iPod
B) JC Penney’s information system that allows its contract manufacturers to see what garments have been sold and need to be replaced
C) Toyota’s legendary TPS that has created superlative efficiencies and enabled Toyota to become the world’s largest auto maker
D) Verizon’s Web-based digital dashboard providing real-time company information for managers
A
An example of a business using information systems to attain competitive advantage is:
A) Apple’s creation of the iPod.
B) JC Penney’s information system that allows its contract manufacturers to see what garments have been sold and need to be replaced.
C) Toyota’s legendary TPS that has created superlative efficiencies and enabled Toyota to become the world’s largest auto maker.
D) Verizon’s Web-based digital dashboard providing real-time company information for managers.
C
An example of a business using information systems for customer and supplier intimacy is:
A) Apple’s creation of the iPod.
B) JC Penney’s information system that allows its contract manufacturers to see what garments have been sold and need to be replaced.
C) Toyota’s legendary TPS that has created superlative efficiencies and enabled Toyota to become the world’s largest auto maker.
D) Verizon’s Web-based digital dashboard providing real-time company information for managers.
B
An information skill important for an accounting major would be:
A) an understanding of online transaction and reporting systems.
B) an understanding of product management enterprise systems.
C) an understanding of supplier management enterprise systems.
D) an understanding of enterprise systems that enhance leadership.
A
information skill important for a marketing major would be:
A) an understanding of online transaction and reporting systems.
B) an understanding of product management enterprise systems.
C) an understanding of supplier management enterprise systems.
D) an understanding of enterprise systems that enhance leadership.
B
Consider an information system in a moving company that analyzes travel patterns and decides which routes are the most efficient for every van. The need for employees to follow procedures to update this system with arrival and departure times would be considered a(n) ________ element of the system.
A) organizational
B) managerial
C) people
D) technology
A
What is the estimated growth rate for information systems managers’ jobs through 2020?
A) 15%
B) -1%
C) 45%
D) 5%
D
To make sure they stock clothes that their customers will purchase, a department store implements a new application that analyzes spending levels at their stores and cross references this data to popular clothing styles. This is an example of using information systems to support a business strategy of:
A) new products, services, and business models.
B) survival.
C) customer and supplier intimacy.
D) improved decision making.
C
Financial managers work directly with ________ to ensure investments in information systems help achieve corporate goals.
A) operations managers
B) senior managers
C) marketing managers
D) accounting managers
B
Operations management, as a discipline, is directly relevant to all of the following occupational categories except:
A) industrial production managers.
B) operations analysts.
C) administrative service managers.
D) financial managers.
D
Assume you work for a package delivery service in a major metropolitan area and that the business has been losing customers for several years. You have been asked to find a solution to this problem, perhaps one which uses modern information technologies. What is the correct way to proceed?
A) Look for solutions, evaluate the solutions, identify the problem more clearly, and then implement the solution.
B) Think about what solutions can be implemented, look for solution designs, evaluate the designs, and then implement the solution.
C) Identify the problem, design alternative solutions, choose the best solution, and then implement the solution.
D) Design solutions, evaluate and identify the problems, choose the best solution, and then implement the solution.
C
Which of the following statements is not true?
A) The most common and successful offshore outsourcing projects involve production programming and system maintenance programming work, along with call center work.
B) Inflation in Indian wages for technology work is leading to a counter movement of jobs back to the United States.
C) The fear that offshore outsourcing will reduce demand for new information system hires in the U.S. is mitigated by the fact that reduced IT expenditures results in increased IT investments and the creation of domestic jobs.
D) The impact of domestic IT outsourcing has been very disruptive to some regional areas of the U.S.
D
The culture of UPS places service to the customer among the company’s highest business objectives, which is reflected in their use of information systems to enable customer tracking of their packages. Based on your reading of Chapter 1, why is “culture” an important factor to consider when building information system solutions to business problems?
A) Culture is one element that can be radically changed, not always for the better, by new information systems.
B) Culture affects how information system solutions are implemented and used.
C) Culture is a cauldron of employee perspectives and conflicts, which can be used to improve business processes.
D) Culture is the driving force behind decision making and innovation.
B
Based on your reading of the case discussing mobile handhelds in the workplace, PepsiCo’s custom iPhone app to coordinate deliveries enhances which of the following generic business objectives?
A) New products, services, and business models
B) Survival
C) Improved decision making
D) Customer and supplier intimacy
D
The world’s largest and most widely used network is:
A) usa.gov.
B) the Web.
C) the Internet.
D) DARPAnet.
C
Detailed, preprogrammed instructions that control and coordinate the computer hardware components in an information system describes:
A) software.
B) programming.
C) enterprise applications.
D) business intelligence.
A
________ is a service provided by the Internet that uses universally accepted standards for storing, retrieving, formatting, and displaying information in a page format.
A) FTP
B) E-mail
C) The Web
D) HTML
C
Which of the following is not one of the three major categories of business problem solving?
A) Environment
B) Organization
C) Technology
D) People
A
All of the following are elements of critical thinking except:
A) being aware of personal limitations.
B) maintaining doubt.
C) relying on gut instinct.
D) testing alternatives.
C
The five basic entities that make up any business are suppliers, customers, employees, products and services, and:
A) its environment.
B) manufacturing and production.
C) sales and marketing.
D) invoices and payments.
D
Promoting the organization’s products or services is a responsibility of the ________ function.
A) finance and accounting
B) human resources
C) manufacturing and production
D) sales and marketing
D
Checking for product quality is an activity associated with the ________ function.
A) finance and accounting
B) human resources
C) manufacturing and production
D) sales and marketing
C
Which of the following is a cross-functional business process?
A) Hiring an employee
B) Identifying a customer
C) Fulfilling a customer order
D) Creating an invoice
C
Employees that assist with paperwork at all levels of the firm are called:
A) data workers.
B) knowledge workers.
C) operational management.
D) service workers.
A
The three principal levels of hierarchies within a business organization are:
A) management, knowledge workers, and service workers.
B) senior management, middle management, and operational management.
C) management, data workers, and operational management.
D) senior management, operational management, and workers.
B
Key forces in a business’s immediate environment include:
A) regulations.
B) technology.
C) economy.
D) politics.
A
Engineers and architects are examples of:
A) senior management.
B) production workers.
C) knowledge workers.
D) middle management.
C
Which of the following is an example of a key force in a firm’s broader, less immediate environment?
A) Stockholders
B) Regulations
C) Shipping firms
D) Economic trends
D
A computerized system that performs and records the daily dealings necessary to conduct business is classified as a(n):
A) executive support system.
B) management-level system.
C) decision support system.
D) transaction-processing system.
D
Which type of system would you use to change a production schedule if a key supplier was late in delivering goods?
A) ESS
B) TPS
C) MIS
D) DSS
B
A relocation control system that reports summaries on the total moving, house-hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions would fall into the category of:
A) knowledge management systems.
B) transaction support systems.
C) executive support systems.
D) management information systems.
D
The term “management information systems” designates a specific category of information systems serving:
A) integrated data processing throughout the firm.
B) transaction process reporting.
C) senior management.
D) middle management functions.
D
These systems are designed to summarize and report on the company’s basic operations.
A) Management information systems
B) Decision support systems
C) Executive information systems
D) Transaction processing systems
A
________ support making decisions that are unique, rapidly changing, and not easily specified in advance.
A) Management information systems
B) Transaction processing systems
C) Executive support systems
D) Decision support systems
D
Which type of system would you use to determine the five suppliers with the worst record in delivering goods on time?
A) ESS
B) TPS
C) MIS
D) DSS
C
These systems are especially suited to situations in which the procedure for arriving at a solution may not be fully predefined in advance.
A) Management information systems
B) Transaction processing systems
C) Decision support systems
D) Knowledge management systems
C
Which type of system would you use to forecast the return on investment if you used new suppliers with better delivery track records?
A) ESS
B) TPS
C) MIS
D) DSS
D
DSS and MIS are also referred to as ________ systems.
A) business information
B) business intelligence
C) executive support
D) business model
B
Executive support systems are information systems that support the:
A) long-range planning activities of senior management.
B) knowledge and data workers in an organization.
C) decision-making and administrative activities of middle managers.
D) day-to-day processes of production.
A
From your reading of the case study discussing TELUS’s employee learning initiatives, which of the following statements best expresses their experience?
A) Converting the learning environment from formal classes to a collaborative learning can achieve significant reductions in an organization’s learning budget.
B) Employees learn more rapidly in a well-designed, structured environment.
C) Informal, one-to-one learning sessions impart greater knowledge, more quickly, than group learning technologies.
D) Enterprise information systems of all types, including educational systems, represent significant investments and risk to the organization’s budget.
A
Which type of system would you use to determine what trends in your supplier’s industry will affect your firm the most in five years?
A) ESS
B) TPS
C) MIS
D) DSS
A
Which of the following best describes the goals of the Vail Ski Resort’s implementation of new information systems, as described in the chapter case?
A) Improve speed of gondolas in order to increase number of customers.
B) Improve slope feedback in order to better manage customer use and slope quality.
C) Improve quality and breadth of products and services to engage more customers.
D) Increase customer data in order to better market products and services
C
These systems are designed to support organization-wide process coordination and integration.
A) Decision support systems
B) Management information systems
C) CRM
D) Enterprise applications
D
A(n) ________ collects data from various key business processes and stores the data in a single comprehensive data repository, usable by other parts of the business.
A) transaction processing system
B) enterprise system
C) automatic reporting system
D) management information system
B
What is the most important benefit of an enterprise application?
A) Enabling speed of communicating
B) Enabling business functions and departments to share information
C) Enabling a company to work collaboratively with customers and suppliers
D) Enabling cost-effective, e-business processes
B
________ systems integrate and share information from suppliers, manufacturers, distributors, and logistics companies.
A) Collaborative distribution
B) Supply-chain management
C) Reverse logistics
D) Enterprise planning
B
________ systems provide information to coordinate all of the business processes that deal with customers in sales, marketing, and service to optimize revenue, customer satisfaction, and customer retention.
A) CRM
B) MIS
C) ESS
D) CPS
A
Which type of information system would an intranet be most easily adapted to?
A) CRM
B) MIS
C) TPS
D) KMS
D
Which of the following types of systems could be used to enable different firms to work collaboratively on a product?
A) Intranet
B) Extranet
C) KMS
D) CRM
B
You manage the Information Systems department at a small startup Internet advertiser. You need to set up an inexpensive system that allows customers to see real-time statistics, such as views and click-throughs, about their current banner ads. Which type of system will most efficiently provide a solution?
A) CRM
B) Enterprise system
C) Extranet
D) Intranet
C
Buying or selling goods over the Internet is called:
A) e-commerce.
B) e-business.
C) an intranet.
D) an extranet.
A
The use of digital technology and the Internet to execute the major business processes in the enterprise is called:
A) e-commerce.
B) e-business.
C) enterprise applications.
D) MIS.
B
You work for a highly successful advertiser that is just about to expand nationally. Of utmost importance will be finding a way to store and disseminate their client’s frequently updated branding and style guides to all of their branches. The guides include multiple image files and text documents. What system will best serve these needs?
A) A wiki
B) An extranet with KMS capabilities
C) A TPS with KMS capabilities
D) A virtual meeting system
B
Interaction jobs are those jobs which:
A) are in the service sector and require close coordination and collaboration.
B) involve knowledge that can’t be put into an information system.
C) are performed typically by operational-level employees.
D) require intense levels of interaction with clients.
A
You have been hired by Inspiration Inc., to help improve their profit margin. Inspiration Inc. is a business communications consultancy that services many clients in different industries throughout the U.S. The end products of the company are customized recommendations for the best use of a client’s existing resources for improving internal communications, typically delivered via documentation in different media. The company has approximately 100 consultants, all of whom are located in their central headquarters in Chicago. What system do you recommend to improve the company’s business processes and increase their profit margin?
A) Extranet, to enable quick collaboration over the Internet, minimize the time spent communicating with the client, and minimize the amount of paperwork needed
B) CRM, to maintain easily accessible customer records to minimize the time spent looking for client data
C) KMS, for minimizing redundant work on similar clients
D) Video conferencing system, for improving collaboration
A
In a business environment, the focus of collaboration is to:
A) accomplish the task at hand.
B) provide a sense of community.
C) foster better communication.
D) prevent miscommunication.
A
Which of the following statements is not true about collaboration in a business setting?
A) Collaboration may be a short-lived activity, lasting just a few minutes.
B) Collaboration is a many-to-many activity as opposed to a one-to-one or one-to-many activity.
C) Meaningful collaboration requires a supportive business firm culture and the right, decentralized structure.
D) The evidence of the business benefits of collaboration are largely anecdotal.
B
Each of the following is a quality of business organization and structure that serves to enable productive collaboration, except:
A) open culture.
B) strong hierarchy.
C) decentralized structure.
D) breadth of collaboration.
B
What is the primary benefit of using information services to enhance business processes?
A) Improve collaboration
B) Speed up information sharing
C) Improve products and services
D) Automate manual processes
D
A wiki is a type of collaborative:
A) social network.
B) blogging.
C) virtual world.
D) web site.
D
Second Life is an example of a:
A) virtual world.
B) wiki.
C) social networking site.
D) mind mapping tool.
A
The goal of social commerce applications is to:
A) connect through personal and business profiles.
B) use social media to connect with customers.
C) share opinions about purchasing products or services.
D) upload and share business documents.
C
What analytical framework discussed in the chapter helps understand and evaluate the benefits and uses of collaboration tools?
A) Cost/use matrix
B) Task/time matrix
C) Space/cost matrix
D) Time/space matrix
D
Which of the following collaboration tools would be appropriate for participants in separate locations who need to collaborate synchronously?
A) Blog
B) Team room
C) Electronic meeting software
D) Group calendar
C
The ________ is responsible for ensuring that the company complies with existing data privacy laws.
A) CPO
B) CKO
C) CIO
D) CIP
A
The principal liaison between the information systems groups and the rest of the organization is a(n):
A) programmer.
B) information systems manager.
C) systems analyst.
D) CIO.
C
A ________ is a senior manager who oversees the use of IT in the firm.
A) CEO
B) CFO
C) CIO
D) CIT
C
Development and support services for a firm’s business systems are provided by:
A) IT educational services.
B) IT management services.
C) Application software services.
D) IT standards services.
C
Policies that determine which information technology will be used, when, and how, are provided by:
A) IT educational services.
B) IT management services.
C) Application software services.
D) IT standards services.
D
A firm depends heavily on its ________ to supply capital, labor, customers, new technology, services and products, stable markets and legal systems, and general educational resources.
A) HR department
B) environment
C) culture
D) knowledge workers
B
Instant messaging, videoconferencing, and shared screens are all examples of ________ collaboration tools.
A) bimodal
B) colocated
C) synchronous
D) spontaneous
C
Supply chain management systems are one type of ________ because they automate the flow of information across company boundaries.
A) KMS
B) enterprise system
C) MIS
D) interorganizational system
D
________ technology allows a videoconference participant to give the appearance of being present at a location other than his or her true physical location.
A) Telepresence
B) Virtual reality
C) Screen sharing
D) Mind mapping
A
Which of the following best describes the type of information systems P&G implemented to maintain competitive advantage, as discussed in the chapter case?
A) ESS
B) DSS
C) TPS
D) KMS
B
Which of the following is not one of the competitive forces of Porter’s model?
A) Suppliers
B) Other competitors
C) External environment
D) Customers
C
A manufacturer of deep-sea oil rigs may be least concerned about which of these marketplace forces?
A) Product differentiation
B) Traditional competitors
C) Low number of suppliers
D) New market entrants
D
Which of the following industries has the lowest barrier to entry?
A) Automotive
B) Computer-chip
C) Restaurant
D) Airline
C
A substitute product of most concern for a cable TV distributor is:
A) satellite TV.
B) broadcast TV.
C) satellite radio.
D) the Internet.
A
Which of the following can force a business and its competitors to compete on price alone?
A) High product differentiation
B) Poor process efficiency
C) Demand control
D) Transparent marketplace
D
A firm can exercise greater control over its suppliers by having:
A) more suppliers.
B) fewer suppliers.
C) global suppliers.
D) local suppliers.
A
Which of the following is not one of the four basic strategies a company can employ to deal with competitive forces?
A) Strengthen customer and supplier intimacy
B) Focus on market niche
C) Differentiate products
D) Compete on employee loyalty
D
Walmart’s continuous replenishment system allows it to:
A) provide mass customization.
B) provide an efficient customer response system.
C) strengthen customer intimacy.
D) achieve economy of scale.
B
Which of the following illustrates the use of information systems to achieve product differentiation?
A) A hot tub dealer’s use of information systems to determine which models and options its customers are most likely to buy
B) A shoe manufacturer’s use of information systems in selling custom, made-to-order shoes directly to customers
C) A PC manufacturer’s use of information systems to facilitate direct access from suppliers to production schedules
D) A grocery store chain’s use of information systems to produce products and services at a lower price than competitors
B
Which of the following illustrates the use of information systems to strengthen customer and supplier intimacy?
A) A hot tub dealer’s use of information systems to determine which models and options its customers are most likely to buy
B) A shoe manufacturer’s use of information systems in selling custom, made-to-order shoes directly to customers
C) A PC manufacturer’s use of information systems to facilitate direct access from suppliers to production schedules
D) A grocery store chain’s use of information systems to produce products and services at a lower price than competitors
C
Which of the following illustrates the use of information systems to focus on market niche?
A) A hot tub dealer’s use of information systems to determine which models and options its customers are most likely to buy
B) A shoe manufacturer’s use of information systems in selling custom, made-to-order shoes directly to customers
C) A PC manufacturer’s use of information systems to facilitate direct access from suppliers to production schedules
D) A grocery store chain’s use of information systems to produce products and services at a lower price than competitors
A
When a firm provides a specialized product or service for a narrow target market better than competitors, they are using a ________ strategy.
A) product differentiation
B) market niche
C) mass customization
D) process efficiency
B
________ is the ability to offer individually tailored products or services using the same production resources as bulk production.
A) Mass customization
B) Size customization
C) Personalization
D) Demand customization
A
An information system can enable a company to focus on a market niche through:
A) complex trend forecasting.
B) tailoring products to the client.
C) intensive product trend analysis.
D) intensive customer data analysis.
D
Hilton Hotels’ use of customer information software to identify the most profitable customers to direct services to is an example of using information systems to:
A) strengthen customer intimacy.
B) differentiate their service.
C) focus on market niche.
D) increase efficiency.
C
All of the following industries have been severely disrupted by the Internet except:
A) air travel.
B) PC manufacturer.
C) publishing.
D) software.
B
To what competitive force did the printed encyclopedia industry succumb?
A) Positioning and rivalry among competitors
B) Low cost of entry
C) Substitute products or services
D) Customer’s bargaining power
C
Internet technology:
A) makes it easy for rivals to compete on price alone.
B) imposes a significant cost of entry, due to infrastructure requirements.
C) increases the difference between competitors because of the wide availability of information.
D) makes it easy to sustain operational advantages.
A
The Internet raises the bargaining power of customers by:
A) creating new opportunities for building loyal customer bases.
B) making more products available.
C) making information available to everyone.
D) lowering transaction costs.
C
The value chain model:
A) categorizes five related advantages for adding value to a firm’s products or services.
B) sees the supply chain as the primary activity for adding value.
C) categorizes four basic strategies a firm can use to enhance its value chain.
D) helps a firm identify points at which information technology can most effectively enhance its competitive position.
D
All of the following are considered primary activities of a firm except:
A) inbound logistics.
B) sales and marketing.
C) procurement.
D) service.
C
The support activities of a firm include:
A) inbound logistics, technology, outbound logistics, sales and marketing, and service.
B) inbound logistics, organization infrastructure, outbound logistics, technology, and procurement.
C) organization infrastructure, human resources, sales and marketing, and technology.
D) organization infrastructure, human resources, technology, and procurement.
D
Benchmarking:
A) compares the efficiency and effectiveness of your business processes against strict standards.
B) allows industry participants to develop industry-wide standards.
C) is used to measure the speed and responsiveness of information technology.
D) synchronizes the business processes of customers, suppliers, and trading partners.
A
The most successful solutions or methods for achieving a business objective are called:
A) core processes.
B) best processes.
C) benchmarks.
D) best practices.
D
A firm’s value chain is linked to the:
A) value webs of its industry.
B) value chains of its suppliers, distributors, and customers.
C) value webs of its suppliers and distributors.
D) value chains of its suppliers and customers.
B
A ________ is a collection of independent firms that use information technology to coordinate their value chains to produce a product or service for a market collectively.
A) value chain
B) business network
C) value web
D) consortia
C
How are information systems used at the industry level to achieve strategic advantage?
A) By building industry-wide, IT-supported consortia and symposia
B) By raising the bargaining power of suppliers
C) By encouraging the entry of new competitors
D) By enforcing standards that reduce the differences between competitors
A
When the output of some units can be used as inputs to other units, or if two organizations pool markets and expertise that result in lower costs and generate profits, it is often referred to as creating:
A) value webs.
B) value chains.
C) synergies.
D) core competencies.
C
An information system can enhance core competencies by:
A) providing better reporting facilities.
B) creating educational opportunities for management.
C) allowing operational employees to interact with management.
D) encouraging the sharing of knowledge across business units.
D
The more any given resource is applied to production, the lower the marginal gain in output, until a point is reached where the additional inputs produce no additional output is referred to as:
A) the point of no return.
B) the law of diminishing returns.
C) supply and demand.
D) inelasticity.
B
Network economics:
A) applies the law of diminishing returns to communities of users.
B) applies traditional economics to networked users.
C) sees the cost of adding new members as inconsequential.
D) balances the high cost of adding new members to a community against the lower cost of using network infrastructure.
C
In network economics, the value of a commercial software vendor’s software products:
A) increases as more people use them.
B) decreases as more people use them.
C) increases due to higher marginal gain in output.
D) decreases according to the law of diminishing returns.
A
A virtual company:
A) uses the capabilities of other companies without being physically tied to those companies.
B) uses Internet technology to maintain a virtual storefront.
C) uses Internet technology to maintain a networked community of users.
D) provides entirely Internet-driven services, or virtual products.
A
The emergence of the World Wide Web acted as a disruptive technology for:
A) the typewriter industry.
B) print publishing.
C) PC manufacturers.
D) microprocessor firms.
B
Which of the following best describes business globalization?
A) Businesses whose suppliers are located overseas
B) Businesses selling their products worldwide
C) Businesses moving manufacturing overseas
D) All of the above.
B
The greatest impact the Internet has had on globalization is in lowering the costs of:
A) labor.
B) telecommunications.
C) network infrastructure.
D) entry to global-scale operations.
D
The ________ strategy concentrates financial management and control out of a central home base while decentralizing production, sales, and marketing operations to units in other countries.
A) domestic exporter
B) multinational
C) franchise
D) transnational
B
The ________ strategy is characterized by heavy centralization of corporate activities in the home country of origin.
A) domestic exporter
B) multinational
C) franchise
D) transnational
A
In a ________ system configuration, separate information systems are designed and managed by each foreign unit.
A) duplicated
B) centralized
C) decentralized
D) networked
C
________ systems are those in which development occurs at the home base, but operations are handed over to autonomous units in foreign locations.
A) Transnational
B) Decentralized
C) Duplicated
D) Networked
C
A firm that locates all systems development and operations at its headquarters is using a ________ system configuration.
A) unilateral
B) centralized
C) decentralized
D) networked
B
________ typically develop a single information system, usually at the home base, and then replicate it around the world.
A) Domestic exporters
B) Multinational firms
C) Franchisers
D) Transnational firms
C
Which of the following does not describe a difference between the way customers and producers see quality?
A) For a consumer, quality means uniformity of the product.
B) Consumers are concerned with the quality of the service.
C) A consumer view of quality includes its durability and safety.
D) For a producer, quality can be measured with a test.
A
Seeing quality as the responsibility of all people and functions in an organization is central to the concept of:
A) Six Sigma.
B) TQM.
C) quality control.
D) cycle time reduction.
B
The reduction of errors to 3.4 defects per million opportunities is central to the concept of:
A) Six Sigma.
B) TQM.
C) benchmarking.
D) cycle time reduction.
A
Which of the following is not an advantage for new companies entering the marketplace?
A) They can implement new systems and equipment.
B) They are not locked into an existing brand image.
C) They are more highly motivated.
D) They can establish new relationships with suppliers.
D
Based on your reading of the chapter case, which of the four generic business strategies was Ford Motor company following in implementing its new software and apps?
A) Low-cost leadership
B) Product differentiation
C) Focus on market niche
D) Customer and supplier intimacy
B
The iPad can be seen as a disruptive technology for the ________ industry.
A) publishing
B) music
C) software
D) travel
A
All of the following have been disruptive technologies except:
A) the PageRank algorithm.
B) the flash drive.
C) minicomputers.
D) the iPod.
C
All of the following are ways to improve quality except:
A) improving products and services based on customer demands.
B) simplifying the production process.
C) implementing a new information system.
D) improving production precision.
C
You are the production manager for a manufacturer of bicycle parts. Which of the following tools or technologies would you use to improve production precision?
A) value chain
B) CAD software
C) benchmarking
D) industry best practices
B
A ________ is an activity at which a firm excels as a world-class leader.
A) best practice
B) competitive advantage
C) primary activity
D) core competency
D
All of the following are psychological aspects of quality except:
A) effective marketing.
B) company’s knowledge of its products.
C) the product’s reputation.
D) the courtesy of salespeople.
A
Which of the following best describes how new information systems result in legal gray areas?
A) They work with networked, electronic data, which are more difficult to control than information stored manually.
B) They result in new situations that are not covered by old laws.
C) They are implemented by technicians rather than managers.
D) They are created from sets of logical and technological rules rather than social or organizational mores.
B
The introduction of new information technology has a:
A) dampening effect on the discourse of business ethics.
B) ripple effect, raising new ethical, social, and political issues.
C) beneficial effect for society as a whole, while raising dilemmas for consumers.
D) waterfall effect in raising ever more complex ethical issues.
B
In the information age, the obligations that individuals and organizations have concerning rights to intellectual property fall within the moral dimension of:
A) property rights and obligations.
B) system quality.
C) accountability and control.
D) information rights and obligations.
A
In the information age, the obligations that individuals and organizations have regarding the preservation of existing values and institutions fall within the moral dimension of:
A) family and home.
B) property rights and obligations.
C) system quality.
D) quality of life.
D
All of the following are current key technology trends raising ethical issues except:
A) data storage improvements.
B) data analysis advancements.
C) increase in multimedia quality.
D) increase in use of mobile devices.
C
The use of computers to combine data from multiple sources and create electronic dossiers of detailed information on individuals is called:
A) profiling.
B) phishing.
C) spamming.
D) targeting.
A
Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age do the central business activities of ChoicePoint raise?
A) Property rights and obligations
B) System quality
C) Accountability and control
D) Information rights and obligations
D
NORA is a:
A) profiling technology used by the EU.
B) federal privacy law protecting networked data.
C) new data analysis technology that finds hidden connections between data in disparate sources.
D) sentencing guideline adopted in 1987 mandating stiff sentences on business executives.
C
Accepting the potential costs, duties, and obligations for the decisions you make is referred to as:
A) responsibility.
B) accountability.
C) liability.
D) due process.
A
Which of the following is not one of the practices added in 2010 by the FTC to its framework for privacy?
A) Firms should build products and services that protect privacy.
B) Firms should increase the transparency of their data collection.
C) Firms should require consumer consent and provide clear options to opt out of data collection.
D) Firms should limit the length of time that any personal data is stored to six months or less.
D
The feature of social institutions that means mechanisms are in place to determine responsibility for an action is called:
A) due process.
B) accountability.
C) the courts of appeal.
D) the judicial system.
B
The practice in law-governed societies in which laws are known and understood, and there is an ability to appeal to higher authorities to ensure that the laws are applied correctly is called:
A) liability.
B) due process.
C) the courts of appeal.
D) accountability.
B
Which of the following is not one of the five steps discussed in the chapter as a process for analyzing an ethical issue?
A) Assign responsibility.
B) Identify the stakeholders.
C) Identify the options you can reasonably take.
D) Identify and clearly describe the facts.
A
A colleague of yours frequently takes, for his own personal use, small amounts of office supplies noting that the loss to the company is minimal. You counter that if everyone were to take office supplies the loss would no longer be minimal. Your rationale expresses which historical ethical principle?
A) Kant’s Categorical Imperative
B) The Golden Rule
C) The Risk Aversion Principle
D) The “No free lunch” rule
A
A classic ethical dilemma is the hypothetical case of a man stealing from a grocery store in order to feed his starving family. If you used the Utilitarian Principle to evaluate this situation, you might argue that stealing the food is:
A) acceptable, because the grocer suffers the least harm.
B) acceptable, because the higher value is the survival of the family.
C) wrong, because the man would not want the grocer to steal from him.
D) wrong, because if everyone were to do this, the concept of personal property is defeated.
B
Immanuel Kant’s Categorical Imperative states that:
A) if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at any time.
B) one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.
C) one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various courses of action.
D) if an action is not right for everyone to take, it is not right for anyone to take.
D
The ethical “no free lunch” rule states that:
A) if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at any time.
B) one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.
C) one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various courses of action.
D) everything is owned by someone else, and that the creator wants compensation for this work.
D
According to the ________, you should take the action that produces the least harm.
A) Categorical Imperative
B) Risk Aversion Principle
C) Utilitarian Principle
D) Golden Rule
B
Which U.S. act restricts the information the federal government can collect and regulates what they can do with the information?
A) Privacy Act of 1974
B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999
C) Freedom of Information Act
D) HIPAA of 1996
A
FIP principles are based on the notion of the:
A) accountability of the record holder.
B) responsibility of the record holder.
C) mutuality of interest between the record holder and the individual.
D) privacy of the individual.
C
The Federal Trade Commission FIP principle of Notice/Awareness states that:
A) customers must be allowed to choose how their information will be used for secondary purposes other than the supporting transaction.
B) data collectors must take responsible steps to assure that consumer information is accurate and secure from unauthorized use.
C) there is a mechanism in place to enforce FIP principles.
D) Web sites must disclose their information practices before collecting data.
D
Which of the following U.S. laws gives patients access to personal medical records and the right to authorize how this information can be used or disclosed?
A) HIPAA
B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
C) Privacy Protection Act
D) Freedom of Information Act
A
European privacy protection is ________ than in the United States.
A) less far reaching
B) less liable to laws
C) much less stringent
D) much more stringent
D
U.S. businesses are allowed to use personal data from EU countries if they:
A) have informed consent.
B) create a safe harbor.
C) develop equivalent privacy protection policies.
D) make their privacy protection policies publicly available.
C
When a cookie is created during a Web site visit, it is stored:
A) on the Web site computer.
B) on the visitor’s computer.
C) on the ISP’s computer.
D) in a Web directory.
B
The U.S. Department of Commerce developed a ________ framework in order to enable U.S. businesses to legally use personal data from EU countries.
A) COPPA
B) P3P
C) PGP
D) safe-harbor
D
The Online Privacy Alliance:
A) encourages self regulation to develop a set of privacy guidelines for its members.
B) protects user privacy during interactions with Web sites.
C) has established technical guidelines for ensuring privacy.
D) is a government agency regulating the use of customer information.
A
A(n) ________ model of informed consent permits the collection of personal information until the consumer specifically requests that the data not be collected.
A) opt-in
B) opt-out
C) P3P
D) PGP
B
Types of information gathered by Web site tracking tools include all of the following except:
A) health concerns.
B) birthplace.
C) income.
D) purchases.
B
Which of the following statements does not describe a key difference between software and books?
A) Software contains more information than a book.
B) Software is less easily inspected than a book.
C) Software products are more easily compared to each other than books.
D) Software is understood to be more fallible than a book.
C
The limitation of trade secret protection for software is that it is difficult to prevent the ideas in the work from falling into the public domain when:
A) the courts become involved.
B) hackers are able to break into the source code.
C) the software is widely distributed.
D) a new version of the software is released.
C
Intellectual property can best be described as:
A) intangible property created by individuals or corporations.
B) unique creative work or ideas.
C) tangible or intangible property created from a unique idea.
D) the expression of an intangible idea.
A
What legal mechanism protects the owners of intellectual property from having their work copied by others?
A) Patent protection
B) Intellectual property law
C) Copyright law
D) Fair Use Doctrine
C
“Look and feel” copyright infringement lawsuits are concerned with:
A) the distinction between tangible and intangible ideas.
B) the distinction between an idea and its expression.
C) using the graphical elements of another product.
D) using the creative elements of another product.
B
The strength of patent protection is that it:
A) puts the strength of law behind copyright.
B) allows protection from Internet theft of ideas put forth publicly.
C) is easy to define.
D) grants a monopoly on underlying concepts and ideas.
D
One of the drawbacks of patent protection is:
A) that only the underlying ideas are protected.
B) digital media cannot be patented.
C) preventing the ideas from falling into public domain.
D) the years of waiting to receive it.
D
Which of the following adjusts copyright laws to the Internet age by making it illegal to circumvent technology-based protections of copyrighted materials?
A) Digital Millennium Copyright Act
B) Privacy Act
C) Freedom of Information Act
D) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
A
In general, it is very difficult to hold software producers liable for their software products when those products are considered to be:
A) part of a machine.
B) similar to books.
C) services.
D) artistic expressions.
B
________ are not held liable for the messages they transmit.
A) Regulated common carriers
B) Private individuals
C) Organizations and businesses
D) Elected officials
A
It is not feasible for companies to produce error-free software because:
A) any programming code is susceptible to error.
B) it is too expensive to create perfect software.
C) errors can be introduced in the maintenance stage of development.
D) any software of any complexity will have errors.
B
The most common source of business system failure is:
A) software bugs.
B) software errors.
C) hardware or facilities failures.
D) data quality.
D
Flash cookies are different from ordinary cookies in that they:
A) are installed only at the user’s request.
B) are not stored on the user’s computer.
C) cannot be easily detected or deleted.
D) monitor the user’s behavior at a web site.
C
The “do anything anywhere” computing environment can:
A) make work environments much more pleasant.
B) create economies of efficiency.
C) centralize power at corporate headquarters.
D) blur the traditional boundaries between work and family time.
D
The practice of spamming has been growing because:
A) telephone solicitation is no longer legal.
B) it is good advertising practice and brings in many new customers.
C) it helps pay for the Internet.
D) it is so inexpensive and can reach so many people.
D
The U.S. CAN-SPAM Act of 2003:
A) makes spamming illegal.
B) requires spammers to identify themselves.
C) has dramatically cut down spamming.
D) does not override state anti-spamming laws.
B
Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age does spamming raise?
A) Quality of life
B) System quality
C) Accountability and control
D) Information rights and obligations
A
Re-designing and automating business processes can be seen as a double-edged sword because:
A) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by job losses.
B) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by poor data quality.
C) support for middle-management decision making may be offset by poor data quality.
D) reliance on technology results in the loss of hands-on knowledge
A
The term “________ divide” refers to large disparities in access to computers and the Internet among different social groups and different locations.
A) computer
B) technology
C) digital
D) electronic
C
CVS refers to:
A) eyestrain related to computer display screen use.
B) carpal vision syndrome.
C) wrist injuries brought about by incorrect hand position when using a keyboard.
D) stress induced by technology.
A
________ can be induced by tens of thousands of repetitions under low-impact loads.
A) CTS
B) CVS
C) RSI
D) Technostress
C
Advertisers use ________ in order to display more relevant ads based on user’s search and browsing history.
A) behavioral targeting
B) web bugs
C) NORA
D) intelligent agents
A
Descartes’ rule of change, that if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, it is not right to take at all, is also known as:
A) the slippery-slope rule.
B) the lemming rule.
C) high-failure cost rule.
D) the utilitarian principle.
A
The ________ model prohibits an organization from collecting any personal information unless the individual specifically takes action to approve information collection and use.
A) safe harbor
B) opt-in
C) FIP
D) P3P
B
A(n) ________ grants the owner an exclusive monopoly on the ideas behind an invention for 20 years.
A) copyright
B) trademark
C) patent
D) trade secret
C
In a(n) ________ computing model, companies use their own infrastructure for essential computing tasks and adopt public cloud computing for less critical operations or additional processing during peak business periods.
A) scalable
B) quantum
C) autonomic
D) hybrid cloud
D
Software that manages the resources of the computer is called:
A) system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software.
A
Software used to apply the computer to a specific task for an end user is called:
A) system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software.
B
Software that organizes, manages, and processes business data, such as data concerned with inventory, customers, and vendors, is called:
A) system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software.
C
Legacy systems are still in use today because:
A) they can only be run on the older mainframe computers.
B) they are too expensive to redesign.
C) many integrate well using new Web services technologies.
D) they contain valuable data that would be lost during redesign
B
What would be a reason for using a workstation rather than a personal computer?
A) When you need more powerful computational abilities
B) When you need to access a network
C) When you need to serve applications and data to client computers
D) When you need to share resources
A
Which of the following types of computer would you use to support a computer network?
A) Server
B) Mainframe
C) Workstation
D) PC
A
Which of the following types of computer is used for weather forecasting?
A) Mainframe
B) Server
C) Minicomputer
D) Supercomputer
D
Connecting geographically remote computers in a single network to create a “virtual supercomputer” is called:
A) co-location.
B) cloud computing.
C) grid computing.
D) autonomic computing.
C
The use of multiple computers linked by a communications network for processing is called:
A) grid computing.
B) distributed processing.
C) client/server computing.
D) centralized processing.
B
The business case for using grid computing involves all of the following except:
A) cost savings.
B) centralized maintenance.
C) speed of computation.
D) agility.
B
In client/server computing, the client is:
A) the computer that acts as the user point of entry.
B) the location of the bulk of the processing.
C) software program used for logging on to the network.
D) the computer that firsts asks for services
A
In a multitiered network:
A) the work of the entire network is centralized.
B) the work of the entire network is balanced over several levels of servers.
C) processing is split between clients and servers.
D) processing is handled by multiple, geographically remote clients.
B
A client computer networked to a server computer, with processing split between the two types of machines, is called a(n) ________ architecture.
A) service-oriented
B) on-demand
C) multitiered client/server
D) two-tiered client/server
D
The primary storage technologies are:
A) storage networks, magnetic tape, magnetic disk, and optical disk.
B) hard drives, magnetic tape, magnetic disk, and optical disk.
C) storage networks, magnetic disks, hard disks, and optical disks.
D) hard drives, removable drives, storage networks, and magnetic tape.
A
Which of the following is a type of optical disk storage?
A) CD-ROM
B) Hard drive
C) USB Flash drive
D) Magnetic tape
A
Which of the following storage technology stores data sequentially?
A) CD-ROM
B) RAID
C) Magnetic disks
D) Magnetic tape
D
A high-speed network dedicated to storage that connects different kinds of storage devices, such as tape libraries and disk arrays so they can be shared by multiple servers, best describes:
A) SSN.
B) ASP.
C) LAN.
D) SAN.
D
What type of device gathers data and converts them into electronic form for use by the computer?
A) Output device
B) Input device
C) Optical storage
D) Magnetic storage
B
Which of the following devices collects data directly from the environment for input into a computer system?
A) Sensor
B) Touch screen
C) Audio input
D) Trackball
A
Which of the following is not a type of output device?
A) Speakers
B) Cathode ray tube
C) Ink jet printer
D) Keyboard
D
Virtualization:
A) allows one operating system to manage several physical machines.
B) has enabled microprocessor manufacturers to reduce the size of transistors to the width of an atom.
C) can boost server utilization rates to 70% or higher.
D) allows smartphones to run full-fledged operating systems.
C
Which of the following statements is not true about cloud computing?
A) It consists of three types of services: cloud infrastructure, cloud platform, and cloud software.
B) It removes the concern about data and systems security for businesses.
C) It allows smaller firms to use resources previously unaffordable.
D) It relies on the Internet as the platform for delivering services to users.
B
Purchasing computing power from a central computing service and paying only for the amount of computing power used is commonly referred to as:
A) grid computing.
B) utility computing.
C) client/server computing.
D) autonomic computing.
B
________ describes the practices and technologies used minimize the environmental effects of manufacturing and managing computing devices.
A) Capacity planning
B) Cloud computing
C) Green computing
D) Autonomic computing
C
An example of autonomic computing is:
A) virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically.
B) software programmed to run on any hardware platform.
C) cell phones taking on the functions of handheld computers.
D) programming languages that allow non-programmers to create custom applications.
A
An industry-wide effort to develop systems that can configure, optimize, tune, and heal themselves when broken, and protect themselves from outside intruders and self-destruction is called:
A) grid computing.
B) utility computing.
C) cloud computing.
D) autonomic computing.
D
The interactive, multiuser operating system developed by Bell Laboratories in 1969 to be highly supportive of communications and networking is:
A) UNIX.
B) Linux.
C) Mac OS.
D) COBOL
A
Linux is:
A) primarily concerned with the tasks of end users.
B) designed for specific machines and specific microprocessors.
C) an example of open-source software.
D) especially useful for processing numeric data.
C
Linux plays a major role in supporting business information systems, and has garnered about ________ of the U.S. server market.
A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 80 percent
B
Which of the following is not one of the most important programming languages for business?
A) Java
B) C++
C) XML
D) Visual Basic
C
The toy manufacturer you work for wants to exchange data with a chain of toy stores in order to improve their distribution and speed to market. The toy stores use different software than your firm. Which of the following tools or technologies presents the best solution?
A) Mashups
B) Extranet
C) Web services
D) Cloud computing
C
Apps:
A) lower the cost of switching mobile platforms.
B) are an example of open-source software.
C) tie the user to a particular hardware platform.
D) require the user to have an online connection.
D
Microsoft Word is an example of:
A) open-source software.
B) word-processing software.
C) software productivity suite.
D) data management software.
B
Linux:
A) is a Windows-like operating system.
B) plays a major role in running Web servers and local area networks.
C) is the primary OS used in quantum computing.
D) is designed to support only UNIX computers.
A
Microsoft Excel is an example of:
A) data management software.
B) spreadsheet software.
C) presentation graphics.
D) word processing software.
B
Which type of software provides more control over text and graphic placement in the layout of a page than word processing software?
A) Desktop publishing software
B) Spreadsheet software
C) Graphics software
D) Presentation software
A
The main challenge coming to Microsoft’s Office software suite will be:
A) open-source, Linux-based suites such as StarOffice.
B) Web-based productivity software such as Google Apps.
C) mobile software.
D) in-house, custom software created using open-source Web services.
B
A software suite:
A) includes capabilities for presentation graphics as well as text-editing and spreadsheets.
B) provides functions to support the collaborative activities of workgroups, including software for group writing, information-sharing, and electronic meetings.
C) includes full-featured versions of application software bundled as a unit.
D) combines the functions of important PC software packages.
C
Running a Java program on a computer requires:
A) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on the computer.
B) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on the server hosting the Java applet.
C) an applet to be downloaded to the user’s computer.
D) no extra or specialized software, as Java is platform-independent.
A
What is the foundation technology for Web services?
A) HTML
B) XML
C) SOAP
D) UDDI
B
A set of self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application is called:
A) Web services.
B) enterprise integration.
C) SOA.
D) ERP.
C
ChicagoCrime.org, which combines Google Maps with crime data for the city of Chicago, is an example of:
A) cloud computing.
B) SOA.
C) a widget.
D) a mashup.
D
Software applications that combine different components of online software applications are referred to as:
A) integrated software.
B) widgets.
C) mashups.
D) grid computing.
C
All of the following place strain on system capacity, except for:
A) increased number of users.
B) minimized response time for transaction processing.
C) increased business volume.
D) large numbers of interactive Web pages.
B
Which of the following refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a larger number of users without breaking down?
A) Modifiability
B) Scalability
C) Expandability
D) Disintermediation
B
To analyze the direct and indirect costs and determine the actual cost of specific technology implementations, you would use a:
A) total cost of ownership model.
B) return on investment model.
C) break-even point.
D) cost benefit analysis.
A
Translating software to different languages is commonly referred to as:
A) software localization.
B) scaling.
C) service-oriented architecture.
D) outsourcing.
A
In order to manage their relationship with an outsourcer or technology service provider, firms need a contract that includes a(n):
A) TCO.
B) SOA.
C) SLA.
D) API.
C
In co-location, a firm:
A) purchases and owns their Web server but locates the server in the physical facility of a hosting service.
B) contracts with an external vendor to run their computer center and networks.
C) off-loads peak demand for computing power to remote, large-scale data centers.
D) utilizes an external, distributed computing grid.
A
Which of the following is an open-source operating system designed for mobile devices?
A) iOS
B) OS X
C) Chrome
D) Android
D
A(n) ________ allows users to interact with a computer by using several fingers to perform gestures without using a mouse or keyboard.
A) GUI
B) multitouch interface
C) touch screen
D) interface
B
________ is an operating system-independent, processor-independent, object-oriented programming language that has become a leading interactive programming environment for the Web.
A) XML
B) SOA
C) HTML
D) Java
D
________ is free software created and updated by a worldwide community of programmers.
A) An app
B) Open-source software
C) Cloud-based software
D) A Web service
B
You use ________ to predict when a computer hardware system becomes saturated.
A) capacity planning
B) virtualization
C) localization
D) measured service
A
MongoDB and SimpleDB are both examples of:
A) Open-source databases.
B) SQL databases.
C) NoSQL databases.
D) Cloud databases.
C
An example of a pre-digital database is a:
A) library’s card-catalog.
B) cash register receipt.
C) doctor’s office invoice.
D) list of sales totals on a spreadsheet.
A
What is the first step you should take in managing data for a firm?
A) Identify the data needed to run the business
B) Cleanse the data before importing it to any database
C) Normalize the data before importing to a database
D) Audit your data quality
A
Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes?
A) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT
B) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute ADDRESS
C) The entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE
D) The entity PRODUCT with the attribute CUSTOMER
B
The type of logical database model that treats data as if they were stored in two-dimensional tables is the:
A) two-tiered DBMS.
B) pre-digital DBMS.
C) relational DBMS.
D) hierarchical DBMS.
C
What are the relationships that the relational database is named for?
A) Relationships between rows and columns
B) Relationships between entities
C) Relationships between fields and records
D) Relationships between databases
B
A characteristic or quality describing an entity is called a(n):
A) field.
B) tuple.
C) key field.
D) attribute.
D
The most basic business database is comprised of:
A) three tables: for suppliers, parts, and sales.
B) four tables: for customers, suppliers, parts, and sales.
C) four tables: for customers, suppliers, sales, and employees.
D) five tables: for customers, employees, suppliers, parts, and sales.
D
In a table for customers, the information about a single customer would reside in a single:
A) field.
B) row.
C) column.
D) table.
B
In a relational database, a record is also called a(n):
A) tuple.
B) row.
C) entity.
D) field.
A
A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table’s records is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) foreign key.
A
A field identified in a record as holding the unique identifier for that record is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) foreign key.
B
A schematic of the entire database that describes the relationships in a database is called a(n):
A) data dictionary.
B) intersection relationship diagram.
C) entity-relationship diagram.
D) data definition diagram.
C
A one-to-one relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends:
A) in two short marks.
B) in one short mark.
C) with a crow’s foot.
D) with a crow’s foot topped by a short mark.
A
A one-to-many relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends:
A) in two short marks.
B) in one short mark.
C) with a crow’s foot.
D) with a crow’s foot preceded by a short mark.
D
A table that links two tables that have a many-to-many relationship is often called a(n):
A) derived table.
B) intersection relation.
C) foreign table.
D) entity-relationship table.
B
The process of streamlining data to minimize redundancy and awkward many-to-many relationships is called:
A) normalization.
B) data scrubbing.
C) data cleansing.
D) data administration.
A
A DBMS makes the:
A) physical database available for different logical views.
B) logical database available for different analytical views.
C) physical database available for different relational views.
D) relational database available for different physical views.
A
The logical view of a database:
A) shows how data are organized and structured on the storage media.
B) presents an entry screen to the user.
C) allows the creation of supplementary reports.
D) presents data as they would be perceived by end users.
D
Which of the following is not a typical feature of DBMS?
A) Data manipulation language
B) Report generation tools
C) Data dictionary
D) Query wizard tool
D
Access is a:
A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
B) popular open-source DBMS.
C) DBMS for midrange computers.
D) DBMS for desktop PC systems.
D
In clustering, a data mining tool will:
A) find new groupings within data.
B) find related predictions from existing values.
C) find several events grouped by time.
D) find new associations.
A
MySQL is a:
A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
B) popular open-source DBMS.
C) mainframe relational DBMS.
D) DBMS for desktop systems.
B
Data mining is more ________ than OLAP.
A) data focused
B) multidimensional
C) query oriented
D) discovery driven
D
In a relational database, the three basic operations used to develop useful sets of data are:
A) select, project, and where.
B) select, join, and where.
C) select, project, and join.
D) select, from, and join.
C
The select operation:
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
C) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
D) creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meet stated criteria.
D
All of the following are tools or technologies for extracting information from unstructured data sets except:
A) sentiment analysis software.
B) SQL queries.
C) Hadoop.
D) Non-relational DBMS.
B
The project operation:
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
C) organizes elements into segments.
D) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
B
Which of the following best describes the importance of creating an accurate data model for your business’s database?
A) It is not essential, as the data model itself is modified by the database continuously.
B) Critical, as without one, your data may be inaccurate, incomplete, or difficult to retrieve
C) Essential, as table relationships cannot be created without an accurate data model
D) Somewhat important, as the type of data model will define what kinds of data will be stored
B
An automated or manual file that stores information about data elements and data characteristics such as usage, physical representation, ownership, authorization, and security is the:
A) data dictionary.
B) data definition diagram.
C) entity-relationship diagram.
D) relationship dictionary.
A
You are working in the IT department of a small paper supply company and planning a new database that monitors employee benefits and productivity. What would be the relationship you need to establish between Employee_ID in the Employee table and Parking_spot_number in the Perks table?
A) one-to-many
B) one-to-one
B
The most prominent data manipulation language today is:
A) Access.
B) DB2.
C) SQL.
D) Crystal Reports.
C
DBMS typically include report-generating tools in order to:
A) retrieve and display data.
B) display data in an easier-to-read format.
C) display data in graphs.
D) perform predictive analysis.
B
What is the purpose of a DBMS’s data definition function?
A) Storing and managing the data in the database
B) Storing definitions of data elements
C) Normalizing the database
D) Structuring the database
D
Which of the following database types would be best suited for storing multimedia?
A) SQL DBMS
B) Open-source DBMS
C) Non-relational DBMS
D) Cloud-based database
C
Pre-configured hardware-software systems that use both relational and non-relational technology optimized for analyzing large datasets are referred to as:
A) Hybrid DBMS.
B) Hadoop.
C) BI.
D) Analytic platforms.
D
Which of the following statements about data warehouses is not true?
A) They store supply data to be used across the enterprise for management analysis and decision making.
B) Data warehouse systems provide a range of ad hoc and standardized query tools, analytical tools, and graphical reporting facilities.
C) They may include data from Web site transactions.
D) Data warehouse systems provide easy-to-use tools for managers to easily update data.
D
A data mart usually can be constructed more rapidly and at lower cost than a data warehouse because:
A) it typically focuses on a single subject area or line of business.
B) all the information is historical.
C) it uses a Web interface.
D) all of the information belongs to a single company.
A
Tools for consolidating, analyzing, and providing access to vast amounts of data to help users make better business decisions are known as:
A) DSS.
B) business intelligence.
C) OLAP.
D) data mining.
B
The tool that enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions is:
A) Hadoop.
B) SQL.
C) OLAP.
D) data mining.
C
OLAP is a tool for enabling:
A) users to obtain online answers to ad hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
B) users to view both logical and physical views of data.
C) programmers to quickly diagram data relationships.
D) programmers to normalize data.
A
Data mining is a tool for allowing users to:
A) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years.
B) find hidden relationships in data.
C) obtain online answers to ad hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports.
B
In terms of the data relationships found by data mining, associations refers to:
A) events linked over time.
B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs.
C) occurrences linked to a single event.
D) undiscovered groupings.
C
In terms of the data relationships found by data mining, sequences refers to:
A) events linked over time.
B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs.
C) occurrences linked to a single event.
D) undiscovered groupings.
A
Which of the following would you use to find patterns in user interaction data recorded by Web servers?
A) Web usage mining
B) Web server mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web content mining
A
Which of the following would you use to find out which Web sites with content related to database design were the most often linked to by other Web sites?
A) Web usage mining
B) Web server mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web content mining
C
Within a corporate information services department, the task of creating the physical database and its logical relations are responsibilities of the ________ function.
A) database administration
B) data administration
C) server administration
D) data modeling
A
Businesses use ________ tools to search and analyze unstructured data sets, such as e-mails and memos.
A) Hadoop
B) Web mining
C) text mining
D) OLAP
C
The confusion created by ________ makes it difficult for companies to create customer relationship management, supply chain management, or enterprise systems that integrate data from different sources.
A) batch processing
B) data redundancy
C) data independence
D) online processing
B
Detecting and correcting data in a database or file that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant is called:
A) data auditing.
B) defragmentation.
C) data scrubbing.
D) data optimization.
C
Relational database systems use ________ to ensure that relationships between coupled tables remain consistent.
A) intersection relations
B) referential integrity rules
C) entity-relationship diagrams
D) foreign keys
B
Hadoop is a(n):
A) NoSQL database technology that stores both data and procedures acting on the data as objects.
B) data mining platform designed for storing and analyzing big data produced by Web communications and transactions.
C) open-source software framework designed for distributing data-processing over inexpensive computers.
D) pre-configured hardware-software system designed for analyzing big data.
C
A data ________ stores current and historical data of potential interest to decision makers throughout the company.
A) warehouse
B) mart
C) archive
D) mine
A
A(n) ________ is a dedicated computer in a client/server environment that hosts a DBMS.
A) web server
B) application server
C) database server
D) client server
D
A(n) ________ is a structured survey of the accuracy and level of completeness of the data in an information system.
A) data quality audit
B) systems analysis
C) systems audit
D) data analysis
A
The device that acts as a connection point between computers and can filter and forward data to a specified destination is called a(n):
A) hub.
B) switch.
C) router.
D) NIC.
B
The Internet is based on which three key technologies?
A) TCP/IP, HTML, and HTTP
B) TCP/IP, HTTP, and packet switching
C) Client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers
D) Client/server computing, packet switching, and HTTP
C
The method of slicing digital messages into parcels, transmitting them along different communication paths, and reassembling them at their destinations is called:
A) multiplexing.
B) packet switching.
C) packet routing.
D) ATM.
B
The telephone system is an example of a ________ network.
A) peer-to-peer
B) wireless
C) packet-switched
D) circuit-switched
D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?
A) Packets travel independently of each other.
B) Packets are routed through many different paths.
C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.
D) Packets include data for checking transmission errors.
C
In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for:
A) disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission.
B) establishing an Internet connection between two computers.
C) moving packets over the network.
D) sequencing the transfer of packets.
A
In a telecommunications network architecture, a protocol is:
A) a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network.
B) a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network.
C) a communications service for microcomputer users.
D) the main computer in a telecommunications network.
B
What are the four layers of the TCP/IP reference model?
A) Physical, application, transport, and network interface
B) Physical, application, Internet, and network interface
C) Application, transport, Internet, and network interface
D) Application, hardware, Internet, and network interface
C
Which signal types are represented by a continuous waveform?
A) Laser
B) Optical
C) Digital
D) Analog
D
To use the analog telephone system for sending digital data, you must also use:
A) a modem.
B) a router.
C) DSL.
D) twisted wire.
A
Which type of network is used to connect digital devices within a half-mile or 500-meter radius?
A) Microwave
B) LAN
C) WAN
D) MAN
B
Which type of network serves a small group of computers, allowing them to share resources and peripherals without using a dedicated server?
A) Peer-to-peer
B) Wireless
C) LAN
D) Ring
A
Which type of network would be most appropriate for a business that comprised three employees and a manager located in the same office space, whose primary need is to share documents?
A) PAN
B) Domain-based LAN
C) Peer-to-peer network
D) Campus area network
C
Which of the following is considered by many to be the defining Web 2.0 application?
A) Instant messaging
B) E-mail
C) Blogging
D) Social networking
D
Which of the following enables multiple users to create and edit Web documents?
A) Wiki
B) Blog
C) Social networking
D) Pinterest
A
The “Internet of Things” refers to:
A) the increasing focus on shopping as the major user activity on the Internet.
B) the microblogging trend, in which users exchange short text and pictures rather than longer and more in-depth content and text.
C) a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet.
D) the trend away from platform-independent Web applications to mobile-device specific apps.
C
A network that spans a city, and sometimes its major suburbs as well, is called a:
A) CAN.
B) MAN.
C) LAN.
D) WAN.
B
A network that covers entire geographical regions is most commonly referred to as a(n):
A) local area network.
B) intranet.
C) peer-to-peer network.
D) wide area network.
D
Which of the following is a challenge posed by Wi-Fi networks?
A) Lack of broadband support
B) Connectivity issues with wired LANs
C) Susceptibility to interference from nearby wireless systems
D) High cost of infrastructure technology
C
Bandwidth is the:
A) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium.
B) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium.
C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.
D) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second.
C
The total amount of digital information that can be transmitted through any telecommunications medium is measured in:
A) bps.
B) Hertz.
C) baud.
D) gigaflops.
A
Digital subscriber lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
C) are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
A
T lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
C) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
C
Which protocol is the Internet based on?
A) TCP/IP
B) FTP
C) packet-switching
D) HTTP
A
What service converts IP addresses into more recognizable alphanumeric names?
A) HTML
B) DNS
C) IP
D) HTTP
B
The child domain of the root is the:
A) top-level domain.
B) second-level domain.
C) host name.
D) domain extension.
A
In the domain name “http://myspace.blogging.com”, what are the root, top-level, second-level, and third-level domains, respectively?
A) “http://”, myspace, blogging, com
B) “http://”, com, blogging, myspace
C) “.”, com, blogging, myspace
D) “.”, myspace, blogging, com
C
Which organization helps define the overall structure of the Internet?
A) None (no one “owns” the Internet)
B) W3C
C) ICANN
D) IAB
D
IPv6 is being developed in order to:
A) update the packet transmission protocols for higher bandwidth.
B) create more IP addresses.
C) allow for different levels of service.
D) support Internet2.
B
Which of the following services enables logging on to one computer system and working on another?
A) FTP
B) LISTSERV
C) Telnet
D) World Wide Web
C
Instant messaging is a type of ________ service.
A) chat
B) cellular
C) e-mail
D) wireless
A
Which of the following statements about RFID is not true?
A) RFIDs transmit only over a short range.
B) RFIDs use an antenna to transmit data.
C) Microchips embedded in RFIDs are used to store data.
D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read.
D
________ integrate(s) disparate channels for voice communications, data communications, instant messaging, e-mail, and electronic conferencing into a single experience.
A) Wireless networks
B) Intranets
C) Virtual private networks
D) Unified communications
D
A VPN:
A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.
B) is more expensive than a dedicated network.
C) provides secure, encrypted communications using Telnet.
A
Web browser software requests Web pages from the Internet using which protocol?
A) URL
B) HTTP
C) DNS
D) HTML
B
Together, a protocol prefix, a domain name, a directory path, and a document name, are called a(n):
A) uniform resource locator.
B) IP address.
C) third level domain.
D) root domain.
A
The most common Web server today, controlling 65 percent of the market, is:
A) Microsoft IIS.
B) WebSTAR.
C) Apache HTTP Server.
D) Netscape Server.
C
What technology allows people to have content pulled from Web sites and fed automatically to their computers?
A) FTP
B) RSS
C) HTTP
D) Bluetooth
B
The process of employing techniques to help a Web site achieve a higher ranking with the major search engines is called:
A) VPN.
B) IAB.
C) SEM.
D) SEO.
D
Which of the following statements is not true about search engines?
A) They are arguably the Internet’s “killer app.”
B) They have solved the problem of how users instantly find information on the Internet.
C) They are monetized almost exclusively by search engine marketing.
D) There are hundreds of search engines vying for user attention, with no clear leader having yet emerged.
D
Which of the following is an example of the “visual Web”?
A) Twitter
B) Blogger
C) Pinterest
D) Facebook
C
A LAN would be used to connect all of the following except:
A) all of the computers in a large building.
B) all of the devices within a 10-meter area.
C) all of the computers in a city.
D) all of the computers in a small office.
C
The most appropriate wireless networking standard for creating PANs is:
A) I-mode.
B) IEEE 802.11b.
C) WiFi.
D) Bluetooth.
D
Bluetooth can be used to link up to ________ devices within a 10-meter area using low-power, radio-based communication.
A) four
B) six
C) eight
D) ten
C
Which process is used to protect transmitted data in a VPN?
A) Tunneling
B) PPP
C) VOIP
D) Packet switching
A
One or more access points positioned on a ceiling, wall, or other strategic spot in a public place to provide maximum wireless coverage for a specific area are referred to as:
A) touch points.
B) hotspots.
C) hot points.
D) wireless hubs.
B
The 802.11 set of standards is known as:
A) WLAN.
B) WSN.
C) Wi-Fi.
D) WiMax.
C
The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately:
A) 30 meters.
B) 500 meters.
C) 30 miles.
D) 5 miles.
C
What is the primary difference between 3G and 4G cellular systems?
A) 4G systems are digital.
B) 4G systems have greater transmission speeds.
C) 3G systems are unable to handle Web browsing.
D) 3G systems have poor security.
B
Based on your reading of the examples in the chapter, what would be the best use of RFID for a business?
A) Logging transactions
B) Managing the supply chain
C) Lowering network costs
D) Enabling client communication
B
A ________ is special software that routes and manages communications on the network and coordinates networks resources.
A) switch
B) firewall
C) server
D) network operating system/NOS
D
Prior to the development of ________, computer networks used leased, dedicated telephone circuits to communicate with other computers in remote locations.
A) packet switching
B) routers
C) servers
D) coaxial cable
A
In Europe, and much of the world, the standard for cellular services is:
A) GSM.
B) LTE.
C) Wi-Max.
D) CDMA.
A
A(n) ________ is a box consisting of a radio receiver/transmitter and antennas that links to a wired network, router, or hub.
A) hot spot
B) access point
C) server
D) wireless router
B
21) ________ refers to policies, procedures, and technical measures used to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, theft, or physical damage to information systems.
A) “Security”
B) “Controls”
C) “Benchmarking”
D) “Algorithms”
A
________ refers to all of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization’s assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards.
A) “Legacy systems”
B) “SSID standards”
C) “Vulnerabilities”
D) “Controls”
D
Large amounts of data stored in electronic form are ________ than the same data in manual form.
A) less vulnerable to damage
B) more secure
C) vulnerable to many more kinds of threats
D) more critical to most businesses
C
Electronic data are more susceptible to destruction, fraud, error, and misuse because information systems concentrate data in computer files that:
A) are easily decrypted.
B) can be opened with easily available software.
C) may be accessible by anyone who has access to the same network.
D) are unprotected by up-to-date security systems.
C
25) Specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment include:
A) tapping; sniffing; message alteration; radiation.
B) hacking; vandalism; denial of service attacks.
C) theft, copying, alteration of data; hardware or software failure.
D) unauthorized access; errors; spyware.
A
Specific security challenges that threaten clients in a client/server environment include:
A) tapping; sniffing; message alteration; radiation.
B) hacking; vandalism; denial of service attacks.
C) theft, copying, alteration of data; hardware or software failure.
D) unauthorized access; errors; spyware.
D
Specific security challenges that threaten corporate servers in a client/server environment include:
A) tapping; sniffing; message alteration; radiation.
B) hacking; vandalism; denial of service attacks.
C) theft, copying, alteration of data; hardware or software failure.
D) unauthorized access; errors; spyware.
B
The Internet poses specific security problems because:
A) it was designed to be easily accessible.
B) Internet data is not run over secure lines.
C) Internet standards are universal.
D) it changes so rapidly.
A
Which of the following statements about the Internet security is not true?
A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders.
B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one that provides access.
C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network.
D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network.
C
An independent computer program that copies itself from one computer to another over a network is called a:
A) worm.
B) Trojan horse.
C) bug.
D) pest.
A
A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor’s in order to drive the competitor’s advertising costs up. This is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) pharming.
C) spoofing.
D) click fraud.
D
In 2004, ICQ users were enticed by a sales message from a supposed anti-virus vendor. On the vendor’s site, a small program called Mitglieder was downloaded to the user’s machine. The program enabled outsiders to infiltrate the user’s machine. What type of malware is this an example of?
A) Trojan horse
B) Virus
C) Worm
D) Spyware
A
Redirecting a Web link to a different address is a form of:
A) snooping.
B) spoofing.
C) sniffing.
D) war driving.
B
A keylogger is a type of:
A) worm.
B) Trojan horse.
C) virus.
D) spyware.
D
Hackers create a botnet by:
A) infecting Web search bots with malware.
B) using Web search bots to infect other computers.
C) causing other people’s computers to become “zombie” PCs following a master computer.
D) infecting corporate servers with “zombie” Trojan horses that allow undetected access through a back door.
C
Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a(n) ________ attack.
A) DDoS
B) DoS
C) SQL injection
D) phishing
A
Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as a target of crime?
A) Knowingly accessing a protected computer to commit fraud
B) Accessing a computer system without authority
C) Illegally accessing stored electronic communication
D) Threatening to cause damage to a protected computer
C
Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as an instrument of crime?
A) Theft of trade secrets
B) Intentionally attempting to intercept electronic communication
C) Unauthorized copying of software
D) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data
D
Phishing is a form of:
A) spoofing.
B) logging.
C) sniffing.
D) driving.
A
An example of phishing is:
A) setting up a bogus Wi-Fi hot spot.
B) setting up a fake medical Web site that asks users for confidential information.
C) pretending to be a utility company’s employee in order to garner information from that company about their security system.
D) sending bulk e-mail that asks for financial aid under a false pretext.
B
Evil twins are:
A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.
B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.
C) fraudulent Web sites that mimic a legitimate business’s Web site.
D) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.
D
Pharming involves:
A) redirecting users to a fraudulent Web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the Web browser.
B) pretending to be a legitimate business’s representative in order to garner information about a security system.
C) setting up fake Web sites to ask users for confidential information.
D) using e-mails for threats or harassment.
A
You have been hired as a security consultant for a law firm. Which of the following constitutes the greatest source of security threats to the firm?
A) Wireless network
B) Employees
C) Authentication procedures
D) Lack of data encryption
B
Tricking employees to reveal their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:
A) sniffing.
B) social engineering.
C) phishing.
D) pharming.
B
How do software vendors correct flaws in their software after it has been distributed?
A) They issue bug fixes.
B) They issue patches.
C) They re-release the software.
D) They release updated versions of the software.
B
The HIPAA Act of 1996:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
D
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
A
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
C
The most common type of electronic evidence is:
A) voice-mail.
B) spreadsheets.
C) instant messages.
D) e-mail.
D
Your company, an online clothing store, has calculated that a loss of Internet connectivity for 5 hours results in a potential loss of $1,000 to $2,000 and that there is a 50% chance of this occurring. What is the annual expected loss from this exposure?
A) $750
B) $1,000
C) $1,500
D) $3,000
A
Application controls:
A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.
B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization.
C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment.
D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls.
A
________ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage.
A) Software
B) Administrative
C) Data security
D) Implementation
C
Analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost is included in a(n):
A) security policy.
B) AUP.
C) risk assessment.
D) business impact analysis.
C
Statements ranking information risks and identifying security goals are included in a(n):
A) security policy.
B) AUP.
C) risk assessment.
D) business impact analysis.
A
Which of the following specifications replaces WEP with a stronger security standard that features changing encryption keys?
A) TLS
B) AUP
C) VPN
D) WPA2
D
Rigorous password systems:
A) are one of the most effective security tools.
B) may hinder employee productivity.
C) are costly to implement.
D) are often disregarded by employees.
B
An authentication token is a(n):
A) device the size of a credit card that contains access permission data.
B) type of smart card.
C) gadget that displays passcodes.
D) electronic marker attached to a digital authorization file.
C
Biometric authentication:
A) is inexpensive.
B) is used widely in Europe for security applications.
C) can use a person’s voice as a unique, measurable trait.
D) only uses physical measurements for identification.
C
A firewall allows the organization to:
A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.
B) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet.
C) create an enterprise system on the Internet.
D) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e-mail messages.
A
Which of the following is a type of ambient data?
A) Computer log containing recent system errors
B) A file deleted from a hard disk
C) A file that contains an application’s user settings
D) A set of raw data from an environmental sensor
B
________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors.
A) Stateful inspections
B) Intrusion detection systems
C) Application proxy filtering technologies
D) Packet filtering technologies
B
Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are:
A) TCP/IP and SSL.
B) S-HTTP and CA.
C) HTTP and TCP/IP.
D) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.
D
Most antivirus software is effective against:
A) only those viruses active on the Internet and through e-mail.
B) any virus.
C) any virus except those in wireless communications applications.
D) only those viruses already known when the software is written.
D
In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key?
A) SSL
B) Symmetric key encryption
C) Public key encryption
D) Private key encryption
B
A digital certificate system:
A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user’s identity.
B) uses digital signatures to validate a user’s identity.
C) uses tokens to validate a user’s identity.
D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence.
A
All of the following are types of information systems general controls except:
A) application controls.
B) computer applications controls.
C) physical hardware controls.
D) administrative controls.
A
For 100 percent availability, online transaction processing requires:
A) high-capacity storage.
B) a multi-tier server network.
C) fault-tolerant computer systems.
D) dedicated phone lines.
C
In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data.
A) high availability computing
B) deep-packet inspection
C) application proxy filtering
D) stateful inspection
B
The development and use of methods to make computer systems resume their activities more quickly after mishaps is called:
A) high-availability computing.
B) recovery-oriented computing.
C) fault-tolerant computing.
D) disaster-recovery planning.
B
Smaller firms may outsource some or many security functions to:
A) ISPs.
B) MISs.
C) MSSPs.
D) CAs.
C
A practice in which eavesdroppers drive by buildings or park outside and try to intercept wireless network traffic is referred to as:
A) war driving.
B) sniffing.
C) cybervandalism.
D) driveby tapping.
A
________ is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personal information to impersonate someone else.
A) Identity theft
B) Spoofing
C) Social engineering
D) Evil twins
A
Computer forensics tasks include all of the following except:
A) presenting collected evidence in a court of law.
B) securely storing recovered electronic data.
C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.
D) finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data
C
________ identify the access points in a Wi-Fi network.
A) NICs
B) Mac addresses
C) URLs
D) SSIDs
D
A foreign country attempting to access government networks in order to disable a national power grid would be an example of:
A) phishing.
B) denial-of-service attacks.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) cyberterrorism.
C
Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called ________ systems.
A) DPI
B) MSSP
C) NSP
D) UTM
D
From your reading of the chapter’s opening case, Nvidia implemented new information systems in order to achieve which of the main six business objectives?
A) Customer and supplier intimacy
B) Operational excellence
C) Survival
D) Improved decision making
D
A suite of integrated software modules for finance and accounting, human resources, manufacturing and production, and sales and marketing that allows data to be used by multiple functions and business processes best describes:
A) process management software.
B) ERP systems.
C) groupware.
D) application software.
B
Enterprise software is built around thousands of predefined business processes that reflect:
A) the firm’s organization.
B) industry goals.
C) best practices.
D) cutting edge workflow analyses.
C
Which of the following is not true about enterprise systems?
A) Enterprise systems help firms respond rapidly to customer requests for information or products.
B) Enterprise system data have standardized definitions and formats that are accepted by the entire organization.
C) Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices.
D) Enterprise software includes analytical tools to evaluate overall organizational performance.
C
You have been asked to implement enterprise software for a manufacturer of kitchen appliances. What is the first step you should take?
A) Select the functions of the system you wish to use.
B) Select the business processes you wish to automate.
C) Map the company’s business processes to the software’s business processes.
D) Map the software’s business processes to the company’s business processes.
A
When tailoring a particular aspect of a system to the way a company does business, enterprise software can provide the company with:
A) configuration tables.
B) Web services.
C) data dictionaries.
D) middleware.
A
In order to achieve maximum benefit from an enterprise software package, a business:
A) customizes the software to match all of its business processes.
B) uses only the processes in the software that match its own processes.
C) changes the way it works to match the software’s business processes.
D) selects only the software that best matches its existing business processes.
C
Supply chain complexity and scale increases when firms:
A) move to globalization.
B) manage the procurement, manufacturing, and distribution functions themselves.
C) produce products and services that coordinate with hundreds or more firms and suppliers.
D) modify their existing workflows to comply with supply-chain management systems.
C
A network of organizations and business processes for procuring raw materials, transforming these materials into intermediate and finished products, and distributing the finished products to customers is called a:
A) distribution channel.
B) supply chain.
C) value chain.
D) marketing channel.
B
Components or parts of finished products are referred to as:
A) upstream materials.
B) raw materials.
C) secondary products.
D) intermediate products.
D
A company’s suppliers, supplier’s suppliers, and the processes for managing relationships with them is the:
A) supplier’s internal supply chain.
B) external supply chain.
C) upstream portion of the supply chain.
D) downstream portion of the supply chain.
C
A company’s organizations and processes for distributing and delivering products to the final customers is the:
A) supplier’s internal supply chain.
B) external supply chain.
C) upstream portion of the supply chain.
D) downstream portion of the supply chain.
D
Uncertainties arise in any supply chain because of:
A) inaccurate or untimely information.
B) poor integration between systems of suppliers, manufacturers, and distributors.
C) inefficient or inaccurate MIS.
D) unforeseeable events.
D
Why is overstocking warehouses not an effective solution for a problem of low availability?
A) It does not speed product time to market.
B) It is an inefficient use of raw materials.
C) It increases sales costs.
D) It increases inventory costs.
D
Which of the following traditional solutions enables manufacturers to deal with uncertainties in the supply chain?
A) Safety stock
B) Continuous replenishment
C) Just-in-time strategies
D) Demand planning
A
A scheduling system for minimizing inventory by having components arrive exactly at the moment they are needed and finished goods shipped as soon as they leave the assembly line best describes a ________ strategy.
A) just-in-time
B) frictionless
C) bullwhip
D) safety-stock
A
A distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain is called the ________ effect.
A) network
B) bullwhip
C) ripple
D) whirlpool
B
Supply chain software can be classified as either supply chain ________ systems or supply chain ________ systems.
A) push; pull
B) demand; continual
C) upstream; downstream
D) planning; execution
D
Systems that enable a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product, and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product, best describes supply chain ________ systems.
A) demand
B) delivery
C) planning
D) execution
C
Supply chain planning systems:
A) track the physical status of goods.
B) identify the transportation mode to use for product delivery.
C) track the financial information involving all parties.
D) track the status of orders.
B
Which supply chain planning function determines how much product is needed to satisfy all customer demands?
A) Distribution management
B) Replenishment planning
C) Demand planning
D) Order planning
C
Supply chain ________ systems manage the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner.
A) demand
B) delivery
C) planning
D) execution
D
Capabilities of supply chain execution systems would not include:
A) identifying the optimal transportation mode.
B) tracking the flow of finished goods.
C) managing materials.
D) managing warehouse operations.
A
From your reading of the Land O’ Lakes case study, the company implemented which type of system to improve supply chain efficiency?
A) Enterprise resource planning system
B) Supply-chain planning system
C) Supply-chain execution system
D) Push-based supply system
B
A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a ________ model.
A) pull-based model
B) build-to-stock
C) push-based
D) replenishment-driven
A
A build-to-order supply-chain model is also called a ________ model.
A) supply-based
B) demand-driven
C) replenishment-driven
D) push-based
B
Concurrent supply chains are made possible by which technology?
A) ERP systems
B) The Internet
C) Supply-chain management systems
D) Just-in-time supply-chain technologies
B
The business value of an effective supply-chain management system includes all of the following except:
A) faster time to market.
B) cost reduction.
C) supply matched to demand.
D) increased inventory levels.
D
A ________ is a method of interaction with a customer, such as telephone or customer service desk.
A) point of presence
B) touch point
C) sales point
D) client channel
B
Which of the following would not be considered a contact point?
A) E-mail
B) Web site
C) Intranet
D) Retail store
C
________ modules use many of the same data, tools, and systems as CRM to enhance collaboration between a company and its selling partners.
A) SCM
B) SFA
C) ERM
D) PRM
D
________ modules deal with issues such as setting objectives, employee performance management, and performance-based compensation.
A) SCM
B) SFA
C) ERM
D) PRM
C
Customer relationship management systems typically provide software and online tools for sales, customer service, and:
A) marketing.
B) account management.
C) advertising.
D) public relations.
A
SFA modules in CRM systems would provide tools for:
A) assigning and managing customer service requests.
B) capturing prospect and customer data.
C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
D) managing sales prospect and contact information.
D
CRM systems help businesses obtain which business objective?
A) Customer and supplier intimacy
B) Operational excellence
C) New products and services
D) Improved decision making
A
Customer service modules in CRM systems provide tools for:
A) assigning and managing customer service requests.
B) capturing prospect and customer data.
C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
D) managing sales prospect and contact information.
A
Marketing modules in CRM systems would provide tools for:
A) assigning and managing customer service requests.
B) capturing prospect and customer data.
C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
D) managing sales prospect and contact information.
C
Selling a customer with a checking account a home improvement loan is an example of:
A) operational CRM.
B) direct marketing.
C) cross-selling.
D) cross-channel promotions.
C
________ management is an important capability for customer service processes that is found in most major CRM software products.
A) Returns
B) Lead
C) Account
D) Events
A
Which of the following is an important capability for sales processes that is found in most major CRM software products?
A) Returns management
B) Lead management
C) Channel promotions management
D) Events management
B
Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer data to provide information for improving business performance best describes ________ applications.
A) operational CRM
B) analytical CRM
C) operational SCM
D) analytical SFA
B
Operational CRM applications include tools for:
A) identifying buying patterns.
B) calculating CLTV.
C) salesforce automation.
D) pinpointing unprofitable customers.
C
Which of the following is not one of the four types of customers described in the case study on Graybar?
A) Niche customers
B) Opportunistic customers
C) Marginal customers
D) Service-drain customers
A
Analyzing customer buying patterns is an example of:
A) CLTV.
B) analytical CRM.
C) operational CRM.
D) demand planning.
B
Which metric is based on the relationship between the revenue produced by a specific customer, the expenses incurred in acquiring and servicing that customer, and the expected life of the relationship between the customer and the company?
A) Churn rate
B) CLTV
C) Cost per lead
D) Cost per sale
B
The measurement of the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company is called:
A) switching costs.
B) churn rate.
C) CLTV.
D) switch rate.
B
Which of the following statements about enterprise applications is not true?
A) Enterprise applications require organizational learning.
B) Enterprise applications introduce “switching costs.”
C) Enterprise applications are based on organization-wide definitions of data.
D) Enterprise applications are best implemented when few changes in business processes are required.
D
Which of the following is not an example of next-generation enterprise applications?
A) Open-source solutions
B) Social CRM
C) Stand-alone suites
D) Solutions incorporating SOA
C
Enterprise application vendors have created ________ to make their own customer relationship management, supply chain management, and enterprise systems work closely together with each other.
A) e-business suites
B) ERP systems
C) middleware
D) legacy systems
A
The bullwhip effect is countered by:
A) globalization.
B) disintermediation.
C) implementing an SCM.
D) reducing information uncertainty
D
Which of the following business objectives would be most helped by implementing an enterprise application?
A) New products and services
B) Customer and supplier intimacy
C) Competitive advantage
D) Survival
B
Which of the following features is the main reason an enterprise system helps a business improve decision-making?
A) Standardized business processes
B) Up-to-the-minute data sharing
C) Reducing redundant business processes
D) Analytical tools
B
________ modules in CRM systems help sales staff increase their productivity by focusing sales efforts on the most profitable customers, those who are good candidates for sales and services.
A) PRM
B) SFA
C) ERM
D) CLTV
B
________ CRM includes customer-facing applications such as tools for sales force automation, call center and customer service support, and marketing automation.
A) Operational
B) Social
C) Web-based
D) Sales force
A
Enterprise application vendors are now including ________ features, such as tools for data visualization, flexible reporting, and ad hoc analysis, as part of the application.
A) ESS
B) SAP
C) on-demand
D) business intelligence
D
Through what channel did e-commerce first evolve?
A) Online advertising sales
B) Internet portals
C) Online book sales
D) Internet service providers
A
Based on your reading of the chapter, e-commerce is:
A) still in a revolutionary phase.
B) widely accepted by consumers, although technology is still quickly changing.
C) not yet fully accepted by consumers, although much of its driving technology is firmly in place.
D) well entrenched as a form of modern commerce.
A
A marketplace extended beyond traditional boundaries and removed from a temporal and geographic location is called a(n):
A) exchange.
B) marketspace.
C) online marketplace.
D) e-hub.
B
Which of the following is not a recent development in e-commerce?
A) Wireless Internet connections grow rapidly.
B) Social networking sites become a new platform for e-commerce.
C) The music recording industry is disrupted as music creation and distribution become decentralized.
D) Online entertainment business models surge.
C
How are the Internet and e-commerce causing severe disruption to the existing advertising business model?
A) Ties between customer and businesses are being rethought.
B) Technology players such as Yahoo! seek to dominate online advertising and expand into offline ad brokerage.
C) New methods of advertising, such as blog advertising, are emerging.
D) The market entry costs for online advertising services are extremely low.
B
The quality of ubiquity, as it relates to e-commerce, is illustrated by:
A) the same set of standards being used across the globe.
B) the spread of plentiful, cheap information.
C) the enabling of commerce worldwide.
D) the availability of the Internet everywhere and anytime.
D
Which of the following is not one of the unique features of e-commerce technology?
A) Information density
B) Transparency
C) Richness
D) Social technology
B
The act of engaging consumers in a dialog that dynamically adjusts the experience to the individual describes which dimension of e-commerce technology?
A) Ubiquity
B) Personalization/customization
C) Richness
D) Interactivity
D
The integration of video, audio, and text marketing messages into a single marketing message and consumer experience describes which dimension of e-commerce technology?
A) Ubiquity
B) Personalization/customization
C) Richness
D) Interactivity
C
The lowered costs of information storage, processing, and communication, along with the improvement of data quality, has resulted in which unique quality of e-commerce?
A) Information density
B) Richness
C) Customization
D) Interactivity
A
The effort required to locate a suitable product is called:
A) price discrimination.
B) search costs.
C) menu costs.
D) shopping costs.
B
Information density refers to the:
A) richness-complexity and content-of a message.
B) total amount and quantity of information delivered to consumers by merchants.
C) total amount and quantity of information available to all market participants.
D) amount of information available to reduce price transparency.
C
Selling the same goods to different targeted groups at different prices is called:
A) cost customization.
B) cost optimization.
C) price gouging.
D) price discrimination.
D
Information ________ exists when one party in a transaction has more information that is important for the transaction than the other party.
A) transparency
B) asymmetry
C) complexity
D) discrimination
B
Which feature of Internet technology has had the most effect in the Internet’s rapid spread across the globe?
A) Ubiquity
B) Global reach
C) Universal standards
D) Social technology
C
Varying a product’s price according to the supply situation of the seller is called ________ pricing.
A) menu
B) flexible
C) dynamic
D) asymmetric
C
Reducing the business process layers in a distribution channel is called:
A) disintermediation.
B) BPR.
C) market segmentation.
D) network effects.
A
Digital goods are goods that are:
A) produced digitally.
B) sold over digital networks.
C) delivered digitally.
D) used with digital equipment.
C
Compared to digital markets, traditional markets have:
A) lower search costs.
B) stronger network effects.
C) higher delayed gratification effects.
D) higher transaction costs.
D
Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have:
A) greater pricing flexibility.
B) lower marketing costs.
C) higher production costs.
D) higher inventory costs.
A
Compared to traditional goods, digital goods incur:
A) lower distribution costs.
B) higher marginal costs per unit.
C) equivalent copying costs.
D) similar inventory costs.
A
Which of the following Internet business models does Amazon.com use?
A) Content provider
B) Portal
C) Market creator
D) E-tailer
D
eBay is an example of:
A) C2C e-commerce.
B) B2B e-commerce.
C) B2C e-commerce.
D) M-commerce.
A
Selling products and services directly to individual consumers via the Internet best describes:
A) B2B e-commerce.
B) C2C e-commerce.
C) M-commerce.
D) B2C e-commerce.
D
Consumers selling goods and services electronically to other consumers best describes:
A) disintermediation.
B) C2C e-commerce.
C) M-commerce.
D) B2C e-commerce.
B
Which of the following businesses utilize the content provider Internet business model?
A) Amazon.com
B) eBay.com
C) CNN.com
D) Facebook
C
Transaction brokers:
A) generate revenue from advertising or from directing buyers to sellers.
B) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions.
C) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
B
In which of the following Internet business models does a merchant create an online digital environment that enables people with like interests to share information?
A) Community provider
B) Service provider
C) Market creator
D) Transaction broker
A
Market creators:
A) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions.
B) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
C) create revenue by providing digital content over the Web.
D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
B
Which of the following best illustrates the sales revenue model?
A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
D
Which of the following best illustrates the affiliate revenue model?
A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
B
Which of the following best illustrates the transaction fee revenue model?
A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
A
In which of the following revenue models does a Web site charge a fee for access to some or all of its offerings on a continual, regular basis?
A) Subscription
B) Free/freemium
C) Transaction fee
D) Sales
A
________ describes the concept that a large group of people is better at making good decisions than a single person.
A) The wisdom of crowds
B) Outsourcing
C) Crowdsourcing
D) Social graphing
A
Netflix’s public announcement of a reward for a technology solution to its movie recommendation system is an example of:
A) prediction markets.
B) behavioral targeting.
C) long-tail marketing.
D) crowdsourcing.
D
Exposing an individual to ads that are chosen and based on the recorded and analyzed online behavior of the individual is referred to as:
A) clickstream advertising.
B) behavioral targeting.
C) online profiling.
D) long tail marketing.
B
Which of the following best describes the digital social graph?
A) A person’s direct and indirect relationships
B) All of a person’s closest digital relationships
C) A mapping of all online social relationships
D) All of the online and offline relationships a person has
C
Which of the following statements about B2B commerce is not true?
A) Eighty percent of online B2B e-commerce is still based on EDI.
B) B2B e-commerce represents approximately 10% of the overall B2B marketplace.
C) B2B e-commerce only includes commercial transactions between firms.
D) B2B e-commerce revenues in 2013 were over $4 trillion.
B
EDI is:
A) the use of Internet technologies for electronic data transactions.
B) the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network.
C) electronic data invoicing.
D) electronic delivery infrastructure.
B
The process of sourcing goods and materials, negotiating with suppliers, paying for goods, and making delivery arrangements is called:
A) e-procurement.
B) SCM.
C) procurement.
D) sourcing.
C
A secure Web site that links a large firm to its suppliers and other key business partners is called a(n):
A) e-hub.
B) marketspace.
C) exchange.
D) private industrial network.
D
E-hubs are more ________ than private industrial networks.
A) transaction oriented
B) collaborative
C) independent
D) supply-chain oriented
A
Net marketplaces:
A) focus on continuous business process coordination between companies for supply chain management.
B) are industry owned or operate as independent intermediaries between buyers and sellers.
C) are geared towards short-term spot purchasing.
D) are more relationship oriented than private industrial networks.
B
A third-party Net marketplace that connects many buyers and suppliers for spot purchasing is called a(n):
A) exchange.
B) vertical market.
C) private exchange.
D) e-hub.
A
Goods that are involved in the actual production process are referred to as:
A) raw materials.
B) direct goods.
C) purchasing goods.
D) indirect goods.
B
Which of the following statements about m-commerce is not true?
A) In 2013, m-commerce represented about 10 percent of all e-commerce.
B) M-commerce is the fastest growing form of e-commerce.
C) In 2013, Amazon’s m-commerce retail sales contributed approximately 10% of all m-commerce revenues.
D) In 2013, the main areas of growth are in online banking and location-based services.
D
Which of the following social commerce features allows social network sites to gather and distribute to others information about which products a user likes and dislikes?
A) Social sign-on
B) Collaborative shopping
C) Network notification
D) Social search
C
Which of the following is a marketing format that uses banner ads and pop-ups with interactive features?
A) Search engine ads
B) Video ads
C) Rich media ads
D) Display ads
D
A new social mobile app you are developing allows users to find friends who are logged in and within a 10-mile radius. This would be categorized as a ________ service.
A) geosocial service
B) geoinformational
C) geoadvertising
D) geomapping
B
Which of the following is not one of the platforms to be considered in building a Web site presence?
A) Mobile platform
B) Tablet platform
C) Traditional desktop platform
D) Facebook platform
D
Content providers use ________ systems to process large amounts of very small monetary transactions cost-effectively.
A) subscription
B) mobile payment
C) transaction fee
D) micropayment
D
The Internet enables ________ marketing by leveraging the fact that there is always some demand, however small, for a product.
A) long-tail
B) behavioral
C) crowdsource
D) prediction
A
________ is a peer-to-peer market in which participants bet on the outcomes of current events, business, or social trends.
A) Crowdsourcing
B) A net marketplace
C) A prediction market
D) A futures auction
C
Which of the following is not one of the four main types of e-commerce presence?
A) Social media
B) Offline media
C) Blogs
D) E-mail
C
Geoadvertising sends ads to users based on their:
A) GPS locations.
B) user addresses.
C) shopping preferences.
D) web site behaviors.
A
Neural network applications in medicine, science, and business address problems in all of the following except:
A) pattern classification.
B) prediction.
C) control and optimization.
D) generalization
D
Which of the following is a key problem in managing knowledge?
A) Classifying knowledge
B) Storing knowledge
C) Distributing knowledge
D) Locating knowledge
A
According to your reading of the text, Procter & Gamble’s use of intelligent agent technology in its supply chain illustrates the use of information systems to implement which of the four generic business strategies?
A) Low-cost leadership
B) Product differentiation
C) Focus on market niche
D) Strengthen customer and supplier intimacy
A
Why does improving a small, routine decision have business value for a company?
A) A small decision may have a great economic impact on the company.
B) Even a routine decision may have a “ripple” effect through a corporation.
C) A small decision has business value when added with all the other small decisions made in the company.
D) Small, routine decisions typically do not have any business value for a company.
C
Where there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be:
A) undocumented.
B) unstructured.
C) documented.
D) semistructured.
B
The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ________ decision.
A) structured
B) unstructured
C) semistructured
D) procedural
A
Which types of decisions are more prevalent at lower organizational levels?
A) Procedural decisions
B) Unstructured decisions
C) Structured decisions
D) Semistructured decisions
C
________ decisions are most common at higher levels of management.
A) Semistructured
B) Unstructured
C) Structured
D) Undocumented
B
Operational management typically makes which type of decisions?
A) Semistructured
B) Documented
C) Structured
D) Procedural
C
Deciding whether to introduce a new product line is an example of a(n):
A) unstructured decision.
B) semistructured decision.
C) procedural decision.
D) nonprocedural decision.
A
Estimating the number of direct goods to reorder falls into which category of decision making?
A) Structured
B) Documented
C) Unstructured
D) Procedural
A
Which phase of decision making finds or recognizes a problem?
A) Design
B) Intelligence
C) Choice
D) Implementation
B
Simon’s four different stages in decision making are, in order from first to last:
A) identification, choice, design, and implementation.
B) identification, design, choice, and finalization.
C) intelligence, choice, design, and implementation.
D) intelligence, design, choice, and implementation.
D
Which dimension of quality means that a decision should reflect a rational process?
A) Comprehensiveness
B) Accuracy
C) Fairness
D) Coherence
D
Which dimension of quality means that a decision faithfully reflects the concerns and interests of affected parties?
A) Due process
B) Justice
C) Fairness
D) Coherence
C
You are answering phones for a local utilities provider and are speaking with an extremely angry customer. Because your company manual advises employees to transfer hostile calls to a superior, you do this. What quality dimension of decisions does your action reflect?
A) Due process
B) Justice
C) Fairness
D) Accuracy
A
Which of the following is not an element of the business intelligence environment?
A) User interface
B) Executive users
C) Platform
D) Business analytics toolset
B
All of the following are analytic functionalities that BI systems deliver except:
A) user interface.
B) ad hoc queries.
C) dashboards.
D) production reports.
A
Which of the following would be a typical production report for an organization’s financial division?
A) Variability of sales by region and time
B) Projected income
C) Supplier information
D) Cash flow
D
In a parameterized report, users can:
A) drill down to more finely grained information.
B) create their own reports based on custom queries.
C) view overall firm performance data.
D) view data according to different dimensions of the data.
D
Which of the following BI functionalities would you use to assess how customers would respond to a price change in your product?
A) Paramaterized reports
B) Predictive analytics
C) Ad hoc queries
D) Production reports
B
All of the following are dimensions of firm performance that are measured in the balanced scorecard method except:
A) resources.
B) business process.
C) customer.
D) learning and growth.
A
Why is the balanced scorecard method said to be “balanced”?
A) It uses measurable dimensions for assessing performance.
B) It measures performance of more than just financial systems.
C) It assesses both the internally focused and externally focused business processes.
D) It measures performance along all major divisions of a firm, from production and manufacturing to human resources.
B
What type of model asks what-if questions repeatedly to determine the impact on outcomes of changes in one or more factors?
A) Mathematical
B) Sensitivity analysis
C) Goal seeking
D) Forecasting
B
Backward sensitivity analysis software is used for:
A) supply chain optimization.
B) historical what-if analysis.
C) goal seeking.
D) reverse forecasting.
C
Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?
A) GIS
B) DSS
C) GSS
D) TPS
A
GDSS are designed to:
A) allow meeting attendees to share their thoughts in real time with their peers.
B) manage knowledge using a global perspective.
C) enable collaboration among geographically dispersed participants.
D) implement structured methods for organizing and evaluation ideas.
D
A KPI is:
A) an industry standard for measuring performance along a given dimension.
B) a measure proposed by senior management.
C) an alternative to the balanced scorecard method.
D) an analytic technique for measuring financial performance.
B
You are the CEO of a national shoe store and want to add three new stores. Which of the following tools will best help you find the most potentially profitable new locations?
A) Pivot tables
B) Intelligent agent
C) CBR
D) Location analytics
B
You are developing a customer recommendation system for a department store’s e-commerce site. Which of the following tools will provide the most accurate recommendations?
A) Genetic algorithms
B) Fuzzy logic
C) Location analytics
D) Big data analytics
D
Expert systems:
A) solve problems too difficult for human experts.
B) are based on DO WHILE rules.
C) work in very limited domains.
D) share characteristics with mainframe computing.
C
Expert systems model human knowledge as a set of rules that collectively are called the:
A) knowledge base.
B) knowledge database.
C) inference engine.
D) inference base.
A
An inference engine is:
A) a data mining strategy used by intelligent agents.
B) the programming environment of an expert system.
C) a method of organizing expert system knowledge into chunks.
D) a strategy used to search through the rule base in an expert system.
D
Virtually all successful expert systems deal with problems of:
A) associative data.
B) classification.
C) logic and control.
D) unstructured decision-making.
B
________ are designed to have a generalized capability to learn.
A) Knowledge-based systems
B) Neural networks
C) Fuzzy logic systems
D) Expert systems
B
________ are intelligent techniques that parallel some aspects of the processing patterns of the biological brain.
A) Neural networks
B) Genetic algorithms
C) CBR systems
D) Fuzzy logic systems
A
Genetic algorithms:
A) represent knowledge as groups of characteristics.
B) are software programs that work in the background to carry out specific, repetitive tasks.
C) develop solutions to particular problems using techniques such as mutation, crossover, and selection.
D) “learn” patterns from large quantities of data by sifting through data.
C
To automate routine tasks to help firms search for and filter information for use in electronic commerce and supply chain management, a firm would most likely use:
A) CAD systems.
B) genetic algorithms.
C) fuzzy logic systems.
D) intelligent agents.
D
Expertise and experience of organizational members that has not been formally documented best describes:
A) wisdom.
B) information.
C) data.
D) tacit knowledge.
D
What are the two major types of knowledge management systems?
A) Management information systems and decision support systems
B) Enterprise-wide knowledge management systems and knowledge work systems
C) Enterprise systems and knowledge management systems
D) Expert systems and knowledge work systems
B
________ systems help organizations manage both structured and semistructured knowledge.
A) Digital asset management
B) Knowledge network
C) Enterprise content management
D) Knowledge work
C
In order to search for and retrieve knowledge objects in an enterprise content management system, the objects themselves must be:
A) tagged with a classification.
B) linked to their original sources.
C) organized into relevant directories.
D) referenced by appropriate indices.
A
Tools for the management, delivery, tracking, and assessment of various types of employee learning best describes:
A) knowledge work systems.
B) employee relationship systems.
C) employee management systems.
D) learning management systems.
D
________ help media firms store and manage unstructured digital data such as photographs, images, videos, and audio files.
A) Digital asset management systems
B) Knowledge networks
C) LMS
D) CAD
A
________ are an essential component of a knowledge work system.
A) Computer-aided design tools
B) Three-dimensional modeling tools
C) Tagging and classification tools
D) Links to external knowledge bases
D
Which of the following would not be classified as a knowledge work system?
A) Computer-aided design
B) 3D visualization system
C) Investment workstations
D) Digital asset management system
D
CAD workstations:
A) provide design engineers with precise, three-dimensional representations of their models.
B) provide an important source of expertise for organizations.
C) allow groups to work together on documents.
D) are high-end PCs used in the financial sector to analyze trading situations instantaneously and facilitate portfolio management.
A
Virtual reality applications for the Web use a standard called:
A) CAD.
B) VRML.
C) VML.
D) TCP/IP.
B
Virtual reality systems:
A) provide design engineers with precise, three-dimensional representations of their models.
B) provide an important source of expertise for organizations.
C) allow groups to work together on documents.
D) provide simulations of walking through or manipulating a three-dimensional model or programmed real-world environment.
D
________ is a management methodology that translates a firm’s goals into operational targets.
A) BPM
B) KPI
C) Balanced scorecard
D) OLAP
A
________ help users gain information from large amounts of geographically linked data.
A) Data visualization tools
B) GIS
C) GDSS
D) Location analytics tools
D
A(n) ________ table is a spreadsheet feature that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.
A) pivot
B) drill-down
C) ad hoc
D) multi-tier
A
A(n) ________ capability allows users to view more detailed views of data.
A) ad hoc
B) drill-down
C) query and reporting
D) metrics
B
________ intelligence technology consists of computer-based systems that attempt to emulate human behavior and thought patterns.
A) Neural
B) Genetic
C) Fuzzy
D) Artificial
D
Decision making is enhanced by a diverse group of ________, such as data mining and fuzzy logic.
A) intelligent techniques
B) expert systems
C) DSS
D) intelligent models
A
In ________, descriptions of past experiences of human specialists, represented as cases, are stored in a database for later retrieval when the user encounters a new case with similar parameters.
A) expert systems
B) DSS
C) CBR
D) intelligence networks
C
Which of the following types of business intelligence user is considered a power user?
A) IT developers
B) Business analysts
C) Operational employees
D) Senior managers
B
What was the primary problem facing the Girl Scouts regarding their supply chain problems?
A) The ordering process was inefficient for a large volume of orders.
B) There were high error rates in ordering and fulfillment.
C) It required too much time of volunteers.
D) The paper-based system was outdated.
A
Order the following steps in the systems development lifecycle in the correct sequence.
A) Systems analysis, systems design, programming, testing, conversion, production and maintenance
B) Systems analysis, systems design, programming, conversion, testing, production and maintenance
C) Systems design, systems analysis, programming, conversion, production and maintenance, and testing
D) Systems design, systems analysis, programming, testing, conversion, production and maintenance
A
Which of the following is not part of the implementation process?
A) Evaluating the system
B) Testing
C) Systems analysis
D) Creating detailed design specifications
C
Which process develops a detailed description of the functions that a new information system must perform?
A) Feasibility study
B) Requirements analysis
C) Systems design
D) Test plan development
B
Developing an information system has been compared to the problem-solving process. Which one of the following problem-solving steps is not a part of systems analysis?
A) Implement the solution
B) Choose the best solution
C) Develop alternative solutions
D) Define and understand the problem
A
The entire system-building effort is driven by:
A) organizational change.
B) feasibility studies.
C) data.
D) user information requirements.
D
Systems design:
A) identifies the system’s information requirements.
B) specifies how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.
C) identifies alternate solutions for solving the problem.
D) defines the problem and specifies its causes.
B
) In a data flow diagram, external entities are represented by:
A) rounded boxes.
B) square boxes.
C) circles.
D) open rectangles.
B
Transferring data from a legacy system to the new system would be defined by which system design specification category?
A) Input
B) Database
C) Manual procedures
D) Conversion
D
In object-oriented development:
A) an object combines data and processes that act on the data into a single object.
B) data is separated into discrete, reusable objects that any processes may act upon.
C) an object comprises a single, reusable program that can be combined with other objects to form a robust application.
D) data categories are described as distinct objects, which can share characteristics with other objects.
A
Which of the following is not one of the unique considerations in developing applications for a mobile platform?
A) Reduced screen space
B) Keyboard configuration
C) User gestures
D) Bandwidth constraints
B
Unit testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each individual program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
C
System testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
B
Acceptance testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the trials.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
D
In a parallel conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages.
C
In a direct cutover conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages.
B
The Girl Scouts’ conversion strategy of first introducing the modules for ordering cookies and then introducing the modules for transmitting orders and instructions to the cookie factory and shipper, is called a(n) ________ strategy.
A) phased approach
B) direct cutover
C) indirect cutover
D) incremental conversion
A
Changes in hardware, software, documentation, or production to a production system to correct errors, meet new requirements, or improve processing efficiencies are termed:
A) compliance.
B) production.
C) maintenance.
D) acceptance.
C
The oldest method for building information systems is:
A) component-based development.
B) prototyping.
C) object-oriented development.
D) the systems development lifecycle.
D
In the traditional systems development lifecycle, end users:
A) are important and ongoing members of the team from the original analysis phase through maintenance.
B) are important only in the testing phases.
C) have no input.
D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff’s work.
D
As a technical project manager you have decided to propose implementing a prototyping methodology for a small Web-based design project. What is the order of steps you will follow in this project?
A) Develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
C) Define the requirements, develop solutions, select the best prototype, and implement the prototype.
D) Define the requirements, develop the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
B
When systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology:
A) end users can take over the work of IT specialists.
B) the organization quickly outgrows the new system.
C) hardware, software, and quality standards are less important.
D) testing and documentation may be inadequate.
D
Of the following, which is the most important reason for creating a mobile version of a business’s Web site?
A) Mobile devices provide access from anywhere.
B) Mobile devices use touch interfaces.
C) Mobile devices use lower bandwidth.
D) Mobile devices use different platforms.
A
Management can control the development of end-user applications in part by:
A) developing a formal development methodology.
B) requiring cost justification for end-user IS projects.
C) establishing standards for project requirements.
D) requiring Gantt charts.
C
If an organization’s requirements conflict with the software package chosen and the package cannot be customized, the organization should:
A) change its procedures.
B) outsource the development of the system.
C) redesign the RFP.
D) change the evaluation process.
A
“Hidden costs,” such as ________ costs, can easily undercut anticipated benefits from outsourcing.
A) vendor selection
B) hardware
C) software
D) employee salary
A
The process of creating workable information systems in a very short period of time is called:
A) RAD.
B) JAD.
C) prototyping.
D) end-user development.
A
This type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level in the systems design.
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) Prototyping
D) End-user development
B
The term structured, when discussing structured methodologies, refers to the fact that:
A) the finished software is highly documented.
B) the development process is highly documented.
C) the techniques are step by step, with each step building on the previous one.
D) a defined hierarchy of objects and classes are used to structure the programming.
C
The primary tool for representing a system’s component processes and the flow of data between them is the:
A) data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagram.
C) user documentation.
D) data flow diagram.
D
You are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online survey tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues, and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development method would be most successful for this project?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) End-user development
D) Prototyping
D
To show each level of a system’s design, its relationship to other levels, and its place in the overall design structure, structured methodologies use:
A) structure charts.
B) Gantt charts and PERT.
C) process specifications diagrams.
D) data flow diagrams.
A
An entire information system is broken down into its main subsystems by using:
A) high-level data flow diagrams.
B) low-level data flow diagrams.
C) process specifications.
D) structured diagrams.
A
In an object-oriented development framework for a university, how would the classes Degree, Mathematics, and Physics be related?
A) Degree would be a sister class to Mathematics and Physics.
B) Degree is a superclass to Mathematics and Physics.
C) Mathematics and Physics would be ancestors to Degree.
D) Degree would be a subclass to Mathematics and Physics.
B
Object-oriented modeling is based on the concepts of:
A) objects and relationships.
B) classes and objects.
C) class and inheritance.
D) objects and inheritance.
C
Object-oriented development could potentially reduce the time and cost of writing software because:
A) object-oriented programming requires less training.
B) iterative prototyping is not required.
C) objects are reusable.
D) a single user interface object can be used for the entire application.
C
Groups of objects are assembled into software components for common functions, which can be combined into large-scale business applications, in which type of software development?
A) Object-oriented development
B) Component-based development
C) Structured methodologies
D) RAD
B
Which of the following is a technique used to create Web sites that will conform to the screen resolution of the user?
A) Native design
B) Responsive design
C) End-user design
D) Multi-platform design
B
________ provides software tools to automate development methodologies and reduce the amount of repetitive work in systems development.
A) CASE
B) CAD
C) JAD
D) RAD
A
________ refers to the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to achieve specific targets within specified budget and time constraints.
A) Systems analysis
B) Systems design
C) Project management
D) Project implementation
C
A PERT chart:
A) portrays a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes that represent tasks.
B) is used to evaluate project risk and time.
C) displays a horizontal bar for each project task.
D) tracks progress of, and modifications to, project tasks.
A
________ are tangible benefits of information systems.
A) Improved asset utilization, increased organizational learning, and improved operations
B) Reduced workforce, lower outside vendor costs, and increased productivity
C) Increased productivity, reduced workforce, and increased job satisfaction
D) Lower operational costs, improved resource control, and more information
B
________ are intangible benefits of information systems.
A) Improved asset utilization, increased organizational learning, and improved operations
B) Reduced workforce, lower outside vendor costs, and increased productivity
C) Increased productivity, reduced workforce, and increased job satisfaction
D) Lower operational costs, improved resource control, and more information
A
Which process is used to develop risk profiles for a firm’s information system projects and assets?
A) Information systems plan
B) Scoring model
C) Portfolio analysis
D) Feasibility study
C
You have been hired by a pharmaceutical company to evaluate its portfolio of systems and IT projects. Which types of projects would be best avoided?
A) Any high-risk projects
B) Any low-benefit projects
C) High-risk, low-benefit projects
D) None – any project might be beneficial
C
You would expect to find all of the following in an information systems plan except:
A) key business processes.
B) budget requirements.
C) portfolio analysis.
D) milestones and planning.
C
The project risk will rise if the project team and the IS staff lack:
A) RAD experience.
B) web services.
C) the required technical expertise.
D) CASE tools.
C
Users prefer systems that:
A) are oriented to facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems.
B) work with existing DBMS.
C) are able to provide optimum hardware and software efficiency.
D) are capable of storing much more data than they need.
A
A ________ shows each task as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional to the time required to complete it.
A) PERT chart
B) DFD
C) feasibility study
D) Gantt chart
D
Which of the following tools may help identify risk areas associated with employee acceptance of a new information system?
A) Formal planning software
B) Organizational impact analysis
C) System prototype
D) Feasibility study
B
A systems analysis includes a ________ that is used to determine whether the solution is achievable from a financial, technical, and organizational standpoint.
A) test plan
B) conversion plan
C) feasibility study
D) risk analysis
C
Which of the following Web development languages is used for mobile applications because it supports cross-platform mobile applications?
A) Java
B) Javascript
C) XML
D) HTML5
D
A(n) ________ is a detailed list of questions submitted to external vendors to determine how well they meet the organization’s specific requirements.
A) RFP
B) RFQ
C) RAD
D) JAD
A
________ describe the transformation occurring within the lowest level of the data flow diagrams. They express the logic of each process.
A) Process specifications
B) Structure charts
C) DFDs
D) Component procedures
A
________ is a method for deciding among alternative systems based on a system of ratings for selected objectives.
A) A scoring model
B) A scorecard
C) Portfolio analysis
D) Risk analysis
A

Need essay sample on "IS"? We will write a custom essay sample specifically for you for only $ 13.90/page

Can’t wait to take that assignment burden offyour shoulders?

Let us know what it is and we will show you how it can be done!
×
Sorry, but copying text is forbidden on this website. If you need this or any other sample, please register

Already on Businessays? Login here

No, thanks. I prefer suffering on my own
Sorry, but copying text is forbidden on this website. If you need this or any other sample register now and get a free access to all papers, carefully proofread and edited by our experts.
Sign in / Sign up
No, thanks. I prefer suffering on my own
Not quite the topic you need?
We would be happy to write it
Join and witness the magic
Service Open At All Times
|
Complete Buyer Protection
|
Plagiarism-Free Writing

Emily from Businessays

Hi there, would you like to get such a paper? How about receiving a customized one? Check it out https://goo.gl/chNgQy

We use cookies to give you the best experience possible. By continuing we’ll assume you’re on board with our cookie policy