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ISDS 3115 CH 13 study plan concepts

Which of the following plans are the job of the operations? manager, working with other functional areas of the? firm?

A. ?short-range plans
B. long-range plans
C. intermediate plans
D. All? three: short-range,? intermediate, and? long-range plans.

C. intermediate plans
Capacity decisions are most critical to which of the? following?

A. intermediate plans
B. sales and operations planning
C. short-range plans
D. ?long-range plans

D. ?long-range plans
Job assignments are a focused issue in which of the? following?

A. sales and operations planning
B. intermediate plans
C. short-range plans
D. long-range plans

C. short-range plans
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the planning? process?

A. Short-range plans are usually for less than 3 months.
B. Job scheduling is made as part of intermediate plans.
C. Short-range plans are the responsibility of operations personnel.
D. Long-range plans require policies and strategies related to issues such as capacity and capital? investment, facility? location, new products and? processes, and supply chain development.

B. Job scheduling is made as part of intermediate plans.
Aggregate planning is concerned with determining the quantity and timing of production in the

A. next term.
B. short term.
C. long term.
D. intermediate term.

D. intermediate term.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about? S&OP?

A. S&OP is also called an aggregate plan.
B. S&OP is used to determine which plans are feasible in the coming months and which are not.
C. When the resources appear to be substantially at odds with market? expectations, S&OP provides advanced warning to top management.
D. ?S&OP is typically done by? cross-functional teams that align competing constraints.

A. S&OP is also called an aggregate plan.
Which of the following is NOT one of the features that an? S&OP process needs to generate a useful aggregate? plan?

A. A logical unit for measuring sales and output.
B. A forecast of demand for a reasonable? long-term planning period in aggregate terms.
C. A method to determine the relevant costs.
D. A model that combines forecasts and costs.

B. A forecast of demand for a reasonable? long-term planning period in aggregate terms.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding aggregate? plans?

A. An aggregate plan is the output of? S&OP.
B. An aggregate plan often examines a? 3- to? 18-month time horizon.
C. For service? organizations, an aggregate schedule ties strategic goals to workforce schedules.
D. Aggregate plans use information regarding individual products rather than product lines.

D. Aggregate plans use information regarding individual products rather than product lines.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the master production? schedule?

A. The master production schedule is a sales forecast.
B. The master production schedule is a result of disaggregation.
C. The master production schedule is a timetable that specifies what is to be made and when.
D. The master production schedule provides input to material requirements planning systems.

A. The master production schedule is a sales forecast.
What is the process of breaking an aggregate plan into greater? detail?

A. disaggregation
B. aggregation
C. S&OP
D. decomposition

A. disaggregation
The objective of aggregate planning is usually to

A. provide input to material requirements planning systems.
B. meet forecast demand while minimizing cost over the planning period.
C. to determine which plans are feasible in the coming months and which are not.
D. specify what is to be made and when.

B. meet forecast demand while minimizing cost over the planning period.
Which of the following occurs first within a production planning? system?

A. priority scheduling for products
B. aggregate planning
C. master production schedule
D. detailed work schedules for people

B. aggregate planning
Which of the following is NOT a capacity option of aggregate? planning?

A. back ordering during? high-demand periods
B. changing inventory levels
C. subcontracting
D. varying production rates through overtime or idle time

A. back ordering during? high-demand periods
Which of the following is NOT a demand option of aggregate? planning?

A. back ordering during? high-demand periods
B. using? part-time workers
C. counterseasonal product and service mixing
D. influencing demand

B. using? part-time workers
Which statement is characteristic of a mixed strategy for aggregate? planning?

A. Mixed plans are less complex to develop than a chase plan.
B. Mixed plans seek a minimum cost via a combination of eight planning options.
C. Mixed plans typically yield a worse strategy than a pure plan.
D. Mixed plans are less complex to develop than a level plan.

B. Mixed plans seek a minimum cost via a combination of eight planning options.
Which of the following would likely result in the LEAST amount of? inventory?

A. Inventory levels are unaffected by the aggregate plan.
B. chase strategy
C. level strategy
D. mixed strategy

B. chase strategy
Successful techniques to control the cost of labor in service firms do NOT? include:

A. An? on-call labor resource that can be added or deleted to meet unexpected demand.
B. Flexibility in rate of output or hours of work to meet changing supply.
C. Flexibility of individual worker skills that permits reallocation of available labor.
D. Accurate scheduling of? labor-hours to assure quick response to customer demand.

B. Flexibility in rate of output or hours of work to meet changing supply.
What is the primary aggregate planning vehicle in service? industries?

A. management
B. inventory
C. labor
D. capital

C. labor
In a service business with a highly variable? demand, the general approach to aggregate scheduling does NOT involve

A. using labor to accommodate most of the changes in demand.
B. depleting inventory during slack periods.
C. depleting inventory during peak periods.
D. building very modest levels of inventory during slack periods.

B. depleting inventory during slack periods.
What makes aggregate planning particularly complex in the airline? industry?

A. significant hiring costs
B. the large number of dependent sites
C. union rules
D. the large capital investment cost of each airplane

B. the large number of dependent sites
Yield management is of interest to organizations having the characteristic of

A. high variable costs.
B. stable demand.
C. low fixed costs.
D. segmentable demand.

D. segmentable demand.
What is an alternative name for revenue? management?

A. price and demand management
B. yield management
C. cash flow management
D. income management

B. yield management
For organizations that have perishable? inventory, which of the following characteristics would NOT make yield management of? interest?

A. relatively fixed capacity
B. service or product cannot be sold in advance of consumption
C. fluctuating demand
D. low variable costs and high fixed costs

B. service or product cannot be sold in advance of consumption
Industries traditionally associated with revenue management operate in which quadrant of the Revenue Management? Matrix?

A. Quadrant? 3: price tends to be? fixed; use tends to be uncertain.
B. Quadrant? 2: price tends to be? variable; use tends to be predictable.
C. Quadrant? 4: price tends to be? variable; use tends to be uncertain.
D. Quadrant? 1: price tends to be? fixed; use tends to be predictable.

B. Quadrant? 2: price tends to be? variable; use tends to be predictable.

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