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IT Final

d
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a characteristic of a project?
a. An established objective
b. A clear beginning and end
c. Specific time, cost and performance requirements
d. For internal use only
c
When considering the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
a. Processing insurance claims
b. Producing automobiles
c. Writing a policy manual
d. Monitoring product quality
b
In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle, project objectives are established, teams are formed, and major responsibilities are assigned.
a. Identifying
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
d
In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle, a major portion of the physical project work performed.
a. Identifying
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
b
Which of the following is NOT typical of a project manager?
a. Managing a temporary activity
b. Overseeing existing operations
c. Managing a non-repetitive activity
d. Responsible for time, cost and performance trade-offs
d
Which of the following choices is NOT one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management?
a. Compression of the product life cycle
b. Knowledge explosion
c. Increasing need for multi-project management
d. Declining need for product customization
b
Which dimension of project management centers on creating a temporary social system within a larger organizational environment that combines the talents of a divergent set of professionals working to complete the project?
a. Communication
b. Sociocultural
c. Social
d. Technical
b
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Project management is far from a standard way of doing business
b. Project management is increasingly contributing to achieving organizational strategies
c. Project management is being used at a consistent percentage of a firm?s efforts
d. Project management is a specialty that few organizations have access to
e
Project management is important to understand when someone is a part of a project team because they
a. Work with others to create a schedule and budget
b. Need to understand project priorities so they can make independent decisions
c. Need to be able to monitor and report project progress
d. Need to understand the project charter or scope statement that definesthe objectives and parameters of the project
e. All of these
c
Which of these is NOT part of the “technical dimension” of project management?
a. WBS
b. Budgets
c. Problem solving
d. Schedules
b
Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward
a. Reducing the number of projects a company initiates
b. Outsourcing significant segments of project work
c. Using dedicated project teams
d. Shorter project lead times
c
The following is NOT true about project management
a. It is not limited to the private sector
b. Many opportunities are available for individuals interested in this career path
c. It improves one?s ability to plan, implement and manage activities to accomplish specific organizational objectives
d. It focuses primarily on technical processes
a
Governance of all project management processes and procedures helps provide senior management with all of the following EXCEPT
a. A method to ensure projects that are important to senior management are being implemented
b. An assessment of the risk their portfolio of projects represents
c. An overview of all project management activities
d. A metric to measure the improvement of managing projects relative to others in the industry
b
Which of the following is a good example of a program?
a. Planting a garden
b. Developing a new residential area that includes six custom homes
c. Developing a new marketing plan
d. Taking notes each class meeting to prepare for the final
C
Which of the following represents the correct order of stages within the project life cycle
A) Planning, Defining, Executing, Closing
B) Closing, Planning, Defining, Executing
C) Defining, Planning, Executing, Closing
D) Executing, Defining, Planning, Closing
E) Planning, Defining, Closing, Executing
C
Which of the following is NOT true about an organization’s strategy?
A) Strategy determines how an organization will compete
B) Strategy is implemented through projects
C) Only top management must understand strategy
D) Project selection should be clearly aligned to strategy
E) Project management plays a key role in supporting strategy
A
Which of the following is NOT true about organizational politics
A) Project managers should not engage in organizational politics
B) Politics can have a significant influence on which projects receive funding
C) Politics exist in every organization
D) Politics can influence project selection
E) Politics can play a role in the aspirations behind projects
A
Which of the following terms is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating?
A) Sacred cow
B) Pet Project
C) Political necessity
D) Special undertaking
E) Strategic ploy
E
Project managers who understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization’s strategy are able to do all of the following EXCEPT
A) Demonstrate to senior management how their project contributes to the firm’s mission
B) Explain to team members why certain project objectives and priorities are critical
C) Explain to stakeholders why certain project objectives and priorities are critical
D) Be able to respond appropriately to delays and/or questions about product design
E) Be able to focus on problems or solutions, even if the project is a low priority strategically
C
Which of the following problems refers to lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers? This also can result when top management formulates strategy and leaves implementation to functional managers.
A) Multitasking
B) Organization politics
C) Implementation gap
D) Resource conflicts
E) Employee turnover
A
Which of the following is NOT true for strategic management?
A) It should be done once every few years just before developing the operating plan
B) It supports consistency of action at every level of the organization
C) It develops an integrated and coordinated long-term plan of action
D) It positions the firm to meet the needs of its customers
E) It involves responding to changes in the external market and allocating scarce resources to improve a competitive position
C
Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process?
A) Strategies, mission, objectives, projects
B) Objectives, projects, mission, strategies
C) Mission, strategies, objectives, projects
D) Objectives, mission, strategies, projects
E) Projects, mission, strategies, objectives
D
Which of the following questions does the organization’s mission statement answer?
A) What are our long-term strategies?
B) What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C) How do we operate in the existing environment?
D) What do we want to become?
E) All of these are answered by the mission statement
E
In order to formulate strategies that align with the mission, the organization will need to
A) Assess internal strengths and weaknesses
B) Analyze competitors
C) Examine the external environment
D) Know their core competencies
E) All of these should be considered when formulating strategies
E
Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through projects?
A) Allocation of resources
B) Prioritizing of projects
C) Motivation of project contributors
D) Adequate planning and control systems
E) Quality management
D
Susie’s department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing
A) Poor scheduling
B) Excess work burden
C) Flexible tasking
D) Multitasking
E) Burnout
E
The __________ financial model measures the current value of all cash inflows using management’s minimum desired rate of return.
A) FUBAR
B) ARR
C) IRS
D) IRB
E) None of these
B
Regardless of the criteria differences among different types of projects, the most important criterion for project selection is
A) How the project will balance risk within the project portfolio
B) The project’s fit to the organization strategy
C) Compliance
D) Non-financial
E) Profit
E
Which of the following is true of multi-weighted scoring models?
A) Will include quantitative criteria
B) Will include qualitative criteria
C) Each criterion is assigned a weight
D) Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable
E) All of these are true
A
The following are responsibilities of the governance team when managing a portfolio system EXCEPT
A) Deciding how they wish to balance the available organizational resources among the different types of projects
B) Publishing the priority of every project and ensuring the process is open and free of power politics
C) Evaluating the progress of the projects in the portfolio
D) Constant scanning of the external environment to determine if organizational selection criteria need to be changed
E) Communicating which projects are approved
A
Organizational culture is best explained as organizational
A) Personality
B) Hierarchy
C) Reporting relationships
D) Background
E) Management style
C
Which of the following is NOT true of project management structures?
A) They provide a framework for launching and implementing projects
B) They appropriately balance the needs of both the parent organization and the project
C) In selecting a management structure, the culture of the organization is not a huge consideration
D) The project itself should be considered when determining which structure is best
E) They help determine who has most authority in regard to managing the project
B
All of the following are disadvantages of organizing projects within a matrix arrangement EXCEPT
A) Dysfunctional conflict between functional managers and project managers
B) Expensive
C) Infighting
D) Stressful
E) Longer project duration
A
Bill is working on a project involving the upgrading of a management information system. The project is being managed by the information systems department with the coordination of other departments occurring through normal channels. He is working in _________
A) Functional
B) Balanced matrix
C) Weak matrix
D) Strong matrix
E) Projectized
A
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
A) It is expensive
B) Longer project duration
C) Poor integration
D) High complexity
E) Lack of focus on the project
E
A project team that operates with a full-time project manager as a separate unit from the rest of the organization is structured using ________ organization.
A) Functional
B) Balanced matrix
C) Weak matrix
D) Strong matrix
E) Projectized
E
All of the following are organizational considerations when determining the right project management structure EXCEPT
A) How important project management is to the success of the organization?
B) What percentage of core work involves projects?
C) Resource availability
D) Assess current practices and determine any changes that are needed to more effectively manage projects.
E) Budget constraints
C
Which are the three different matrix systems discussed in the text?
A) Functional, Weak, Strong
B) Balanced, Functional, Projectized
C) Weak, Strong, Balanced
D) Neutral, Weak, Strong
E) Functional, Neutral, Projectized
A
In which of the following is the balance of authority strongly in favor of the functional managers?
A) Weak matrix
B) Balanced matrix
C) Strong matrix
D) Matrix
E) Neutral matrix
C
All of the following are functions culture plays in an organization EXCEPT
A) It provides a sense of identity
B) It helps legitimize the management system
C) It replaces the need for a project selection process
D) It helps create social order
E) It clarifies and reinforces standards of behavior
E
How does someone learn more about an organization’s culture?
A) Read about the organization
B) Interpret stories about the organization
C) Observe how people interact within the organization
D) Study the physical characteristics of the organization
E) All of these are examples of how someone can learn more about an organization’s culture
C
From the list below, which is NOT a primary characteristic of organizational culture?
A) Control
B) Team emphasis
C) Profitability
D) Conflict tolerance
E) Risk tolerance
E
Which of the following cultural characteristic relates to the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior?
A) Member identity
B) Team emphasis
C) Managerial focus
D) Unit integration
E) Control
D
Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which groups within the organization are encouraged to operate in a coordinated or independent manner?
A) Member identity
B) Team emphasis
C) Managerial focus
D) Unit integration
E) Control
D
Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve those outcomes?
A) Risk tolerance
B) Reward criteria
C) Conflict tolerance
D) Means versus end orientation
E) Open-systems focus
D
How is project scope defined?
A) The length of your project and how much it will cost
B) The deliverables or outputs during the course of the project
C) The range of resources you have available and their capabilities
D) What you expect to deliver to your customer when the project is complete
E) The range of customer expectations
B
There are 5 steps involved when defining a project, which of the following is the first?
A) Establish project priorities
B) Define the project scope
C) Verify the budget available
D) Assign team members to work on the project
E) Determine the required completion date
A
Which of the following is NOT true regarding scope creep?
A) It is when the cost of the project is more than expected
B) It is the tendency for the project scope to expand over time
C) It most likely caused by a scope statement that is too broad
D) It can have both positive and negative impacts on a project
E) It can lead to added costs and possible project delays
C
In reviewing the project plan, Susan sees that the first prototype must be completed by October 12. This would be best classified as a
A) Project target
B) Limit item
C) Milestone
D) Project objective
E) Critical goal
C
There are 5 steps involved when defining a project, which of the following is the second?
A) Analyze the strategic plan
B) Analyze the current budget plan
C) Establish project priorities
D) Select team members
E) Define the major objectives to meet the customer’s needs
A
One of the primary jobs of a project manager is to manage the trade-offs associated with the project. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic classifications of project priorities?
A) Profit
B) Cost
C) Time
D) Performance
E) All of these are basic classifications
C
Scott has just been given a project that has a specific completion date. After a discussion with top management he finds that while the date is important the cost is more important and a slip in delivery would be acceptable if required to meet the cost targets. The completion date is best classified as
A) Constrain
B) Enhance
C) Accept
D) Limit
E) Optional
C
The _________ is used to assist in making project trade-offs between schedule, budget, and performance objectives.
A) Responsibility matrix
B) Work breakdown structure
C) Project priority matrix
D) Work package
E) Criterion matrix
E
The highest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is
A) A work package
B) Sub deliverables
C) A cost account
D) Major deliverables
E) The project
D
All of the following are ways the WBS helps in managing projects EXCEPT
A) With cost and time estimates the WBS makes it possible to plan, schedule and budget the project
B) It provides management with information appropriate to each level
C) It can be used to define communication channels
D) It allows the project manager to establish the overall objective of the project
E) As it is developed, organizational units and individuals can be assigned responsibility of work packages.
A
There are 5 steps involved when defining a project, which of the following is the last?
A) Code the WBS for the information system
B) Assign the cost account to a manager
C) Assign the work package to a manager
D) Develop the responsibility matrix
E) All of these are included in the final step
E
The WBS is best suited for projects that have a tangible outcome. Which of the following is used when the final outcome of the project is less tangible or is a product of a series of steps or phases?
A) Responsibility matrix
B) Organization breakdown structure
C) A work breakdown structure is still effective for these types of projects
D) Priority matrix
E) Process breakdown structure
B
The tendency for the project deliverables to expand over time—usually by changing requirements, specifications, and priorities—is called:
A) Scope erosion
B) Scope creep
C) Project bloat
D) Scope enhancement
E) Project add-ons
C
Which of the following is least likely to be included in a work package?
A) How long the work package should take to complete
B) A description of work to be performed
C) Overhead expenses
D) How much the work package should cost to complete
E) The person responsible for the work package
E
Having a strong communication plan can go a long way toward mitigating project problems. A communication plan should address all of the following EXCEPT
A) When the information will be communicated
B) How information should be communicated and to whom
C) What methods will be used to gather and store information
D) What information needs to be collected and are there limits as to who has access to it
E) All of these should be addressed in a communication plan.
C
The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called
A) Budgeting
B) Predicting
C) Estimating
D) Planning
E) Guesstimating
B
What is the relationship between organizational culture and estimating?
A) There is no relationship
B) Cultural norms affect the accuracy of estimates
C) Culture determines whether estimates are made
D) Estimating alters cultural norms
E) Estimating and culture are independent
A
A good starting point for developing time and cost estimates is
A) Past experience
B) Work packages
C) Task analysis
D) Time and motion studies
E) Work breakdown structure
A
Janet is forecasting how much money her department needs to support a new project. She estimates that two people and $25,000 in expenses will cover her needs. Because management typically insists on reducing forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that reduction. Which of the following factors is illustrated in this situation?
A) Padding estimates
B) Planning horizon
C) Project structure
D) People
E) Organization culture
D
Which of the following is a good condition for top-down estimating?
A) Cost and time important
B) Fixed price contract
C) Customer wants details
D) Internal, small project
E) Large scale project involving several sub-contractors
A
Which if the following does NOT help describe a bottom-up estimating approach?
A) They are made by someone who uses experience and/or information from someone else to determine overall project cost and duration.
B) They establish low-cost, efficient methods for completing activities
C) They establish low-cost, efficient methods for completing activities
D) Estimates are made at the work package level and then “rolled up” to determine estimates for major deliverables and for the project itself
E) They can take place after the project has been planned in detail.
D
Sean is forecasting the time and cost of developing a customized software program by looking at the number of inputs, outputs, inquires, files, and interfaces. Which of the following methods is he using?
A) Ratio
B) Template
C) Apportion
D) Function point
E) Learning curve
E
Laura is forecasting the time and cost of developing an intranet for a new customer. Her department has completed six such intranets for customers during the last two years. Although the proposed system is about the same size as the others she estimates that it will take about 10 percent less time and money. Which of the following methods is she using?
A) Ratio
B) Template
C) Apportion
D) Function point
E) Learning curve
C
Which of the following describes the consensus method?
A) Only should be used for projects that require the same task, group of tasks, or product be repeated several times
B) Uses several people with relevant experience regarding the task at hand to make time and cost estimates
C) Uses pooled experience of senior and/or middle managers to estimate the total project duration and cost.
D) Uses the number of square feet to estimate the total cost and time of the project
E) Uses weighted macro variables or major parameters such as the number of inputs or outputs to estimate the total cost and time of the project
D
Rob is responsible for estimating a work package that has a significant amount of uncertainty associated with the time and cost to complete. Due to the uncertainty involved he will be making a low, an average and a high estimate. Rob is using which estimating approach?
A) Parametric procedures applied to specific tasks
B) Template method
C) Apportion method
D) Range estimating
E) Learning curve
C
The salary of the project manager would be an example of what type of cost found in a project?
A) Labor
B) Direct
C) Direct project overhead
D) General and administrative overhead
E) Salary
E
Which of the following would best represent direct project costs?
A) Only labor
B) Only materials
C) Only equipment
D) Both labor and materials
E) Labor, materials and equipment
D
Companies are using which of the following for improving the estimating process for future projects?
A) Adjusting estimates based on individual forecasting abilities
B) Benchmarking and using the experience of other companies
C) Using time and motion studies
D) Creating historical databases of previous projects
E) Establishing an estimating training course for all employees
E
Reasons why estimating time and cost are important include all of the following EXCEPT
A) To schedule work
B) To determine how long the project should take and cost
C) To develop cash flow needs
D) To determine how well the project is progressing
E) To help establish a project selection process
D
Refining estimates may be necessary for a number of reasons. For example, a manager getting further into a project and obtaining a better understanding of what needs to be done to accomplish a project and meet the needs of the customer is an example of:
A) Hidden interaction costs
B) Things going wrong on a project
C) Normal conditions not applying
D) Changes in project scope
E) There is never a good reason to refine estimates
C
Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?
A) An arrow
B) A line
C) A node
D) Both an arrow and a line
E) An arrow, a line and a node all represent activities
B
When translated into a project network, a work package will become
A) A single activity
B) One or more activities
C) A milestone
D) A critical path
E) An arrow
D
Which of the following is provided by both the project network and the work breakdown structure?
A) Dependencies
B) Sequencing
C) Interrelationships
D) Activity duration
E) Timing
B
On a project network, the activity times are derived from the
A) Organization breakdown structure
B) Work packages
C) Budget
D) Project proposal
E) Responsibility matrix
D
An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n)
A) Parallel activity
B) Critical path
C) Burst activity
D) Merge activity
E) Independent activity
B
Which of the following can be used without coordinating with managers of succeeding activities?
A) Total slack
B) Free slack
C) Critical float
D) Float pad
E) Slip pad
A
Activities which can take place at the same time are termed
A) Parallel activity
B) Critical path
C) Burst activity
D) Merge activity
E) Independent activity
B
Bill is building a project network that involves testing a prototype. He must design the prototype (activity 1), build the prototype (activity 2), and test the prototype (activity 3). Activity one is the predecessor for activity 2 and activity 2 is the predecessor for activity 3. If the prototype fails testing, Bill must redesign the prototype; therefore, activity 3 is a predecessor for activity 1. This is an example of
A) Conditional statements
B) Looping
C) Having more than one start node
D) Good network development
E) Natural network flow
C
________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.
A) Merge
B) Burst
C) Predecessor
D) Successor
E) Parallel
E
The forward pass in project network calculations determines all of the following EXCEPT
A) Earliest time an activity can begin
B) Earliest time an activity can be finished
C) Duration of the project
D) The critical path
E) How soon the project can be finished
C
Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity?
A) EF – DUR
B) ES – DUR
C) LF – DUR
D) ES – SL
E) LF – SL
E
Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?
A) LS – ES
B) LF – EF
C) LS – LF
D) LF – ES
E) Either LS – ES or LF – EF
C
If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions would the project manager take first?
A) Check to see which activities cost the least
B) Check to see which activities have the longest duration
C) Check to see which activities are on the critical path
D) Check to see which activities have the most slack
E) Check to see which activities have the highest risk
C
If a project has more than one activity that can begin when the project is to start a common start node should be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network. Without a common start node, each path is a
A) Critical path
B) Parallel path
C) Dangler path
D) Multiple start path
E) Confused path
A
Concurrent engineering, which has dramatically reduced the development time for new products, relies on what kind of lag?
A) Start to Start lags
B) Start to Finish lags
C) Finish to Finish lags
D) Finish to Start lags
E) Any of these could be correct
D
The second step in the project control process for measuring and evaluating project performance is to
A) Review the baseline plan with top management
B) Analyze inputs to control system
C) Compare plan against actual
D) Measure progress and performance
E) Review spending with team members
D
A ___________ Gantt chart is a simple and effective way to depict progress on a project.
A) Baseline
B) Control
C) Variance
D) Tracking
E) Simple
A
A tool used to monitor past project schedule performance, current performance, and to estimate future schedule trends is a simple line chart known as a
A) Project control chart
B) Gantt chart
C) PERT chart
D) Network diagram
E) Milestone chart
A
The earned value system starts with the time-phased costs that provide the project baseline, which is called the
A) Planned budgeted value of work scheduled
B) Planned budgeted value of work completed
C) Earned value of work scheduled
D) Scheduled value of work scheduled
E) Scheduled value of work completed
A
The cost variance for a project is calculated by
A) EV-AC
B) AC-SV
C) PV-EV
D) CV-EV
E) EV-PV
B
Baseline project budgets are derived from
A) The organization’s overall budget
B) Time-phasing the work packages
C) Top management directions
D) The total direct, direct project overhead and G&A overhead costs
E) The earned value system
D
Of the following costs, which are NOT included in baseline?
A) Suppliers
B) Equipment
C) Labor
D) Budget reserves
E) Contractors
C
Which of the following methods will measure the cost efficiency of the work accomplished to date?
A) SV/CV
B) EV/PV
C) EV/AC
D) AC/SV
E) AC/CV
D
A CPI or SPI value less than one indicates that the project is
A) Under cost or behind schedule
B) Over cost or ahead of schedule
C) Under cost or ahead of schedule
D) Over cost or behind schedule
E) On cost or on schedule
C
The value that tells you the planned value of work that has actually been completed is the
A) SV
B) PV
C) EV
D) AC
E) CV
E
The indicator that tells you the amount each remaining dollar must earn in order for the project to stay within budget is the
A) PCIC
B) VAC
C) CPI
D) SPI
E) TCPI
D
Nancy tells her supervisor that as of right now, $1.05 worth of work has been accomplished for each $1 worth of scheduled work. Nancy got this information from viewing the
A) SV
B) TCPI
C) CPI
D) SPI
E) PCIB
B
Sally receives the following information on her project: PV=100, AC=75, EV=100. How well is the project doing in terms of budget?
A) Right on budget
B) 25 under budget
C) 25 over budget
D) 50 under budget
E) 50 over budget
A
Jessica just received the following information on her project: PV =200, EV=300, AC=250, BAC=1500, EAC=1208. In terms of cost at completion
A) The project will currently finish under budget
B) The project will currently finish over budget
C) The project will currently finish on budget
D) The project will currently finish behind schedule
E) There is insufficient information to draw conclusions
A
Which of the following is NOT true regarding scope creep?
A) It commonly occurs late in projects
B) It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed
C) It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness
D) Project suppliers resent frequent changes
E) Scope changes can represent significant opportunity
D
Which of the following is not a wrap-up closure activity that might be found on a checklist?
A) Getting delivery acceptance from the customer
B) Reassigning project team members
C) Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid
D) Evaluation of team performance
E) Creating a final report
E
The content of the final report typically includes the following topics EXCEPT
A) Lessons learned
B) Review and analysis
C) Recommendations
D) Executive summary
E) Team reviews
B
When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is considered to be ___________ closure.
A) Normal
B) Premature
C) Perpetual
D) Changed Priority
E) Failed Project
E
When a project starts with a high priority but it is cancelled because its rank erodes or crashes during its project life cycle, this is an example of what type of project closure?
A) Normal
B) Premature
C) Perpetual
D) Failed Project
E) Changed Priority
B
Which of the following summarizes project performance and provides useful information for continuous improvement?
A) Customer acceptance
B) The final report
C) Team evaluation
D) 360 degree feedback
E) Project summary
B
Which part of the final report examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes relative to the project and includes concise, factual review statements of the project?
A) Executive summary
B) Review and analysis
C) Recommendations
D) Lessons learned
E) Appendix
E
The purpose of project evaluation is to assess how well
A) The project team performed
B) The team members performed
C) The project manager performed
D) The project team and team members performed
E) The project team, team members and the project manager performed
C
Which of the following would NOT be appropriate to assess when evaluating team performance?
A) How well the team performed in terms of time, cost, and specifications
B) Effectiveness of group decisions
C) Individual strengths and weaknesses
D) Customer satisfaction with project deliverables
E) Trust among group members
C
An analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle that attempts to capture positive and negative learning is represented in which of the following?
A) Scenario analysis
B) Variance analyses
C) Lessons learned
D) Performance evaluation
E) Strategic objectives
D
The process for capturing lessons learned continues to evolve, but there are still many barriers to effectively capitalizing on lessons learned that have been identified. The following are examples of these barriers EXCEPT
A) Lack of time
B) Teams get little direction or support after lessons are reported
C) Lessons learned often degenerate into blame sessions
D) Lessons learned are being used across different locations
E) The organizational culture doesn’t support the effort that it takes to capitalize on lessons learned
D
The following are distinguishing characteristics of retrospectives methodology EXCEPT
A) Uses an independent facilitator
B) Establishes in-process learning gates during the project life cycle
C) An owner, typically a team member, is assigned
D) Reviews cannot be linked to percent complete
E) A repository is developed that is easy to use
D
A guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project activities that went well, what needs improvement, and development of a follow-up action plan with goals and accountability is a(n)
A) Owner
B) Project sponsor
C) Project manager
D) Facilitator
E) Mediator
C
More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance feedback process and replacing it with a multi-rater appraisal called
A) Critical incidences review
B) Management by objectives
C) The 360-degree feedback
D) Team evaluation survey
E) Retrospectives
D
Which of the following is NOT a role of the closure facilitator?
A) Create an environment in which stakeholders feel safe to provide input
B) Lead the team in exploring new ways for solving problems
C) Uses several questionnaires as a starting point to conduct the post-project retrospective
D) Get delivery acceptance from the customer
E) Elicit a 360 degree view and input from all stakeholders to create a more complete picture of project issues
A
Each retrospective is assigned a(n) _________, typically a team member who is very interested in and familiar with the retrospective. This individual will serve as the contact point for anyone needing information relating to the retrospective.
A) Owner
B) Project sponsor
C) Project manager
D) Facilitator
E) Mediator
D
The term that can be defined as a set of principles and processes to guide and improve the management of projects is
A) Project administration
B) Fiduciary responsibility
C) Management
D) Project oversight
E) Project regulation
D
The intent of project oversight includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) Meet the needs of the organization through procedures
B) Support the project manager
C) Meet the needs of the organization through continuous improvement
D) Meet the needs of the organization through improving everyday business activities
E) Meet the needs of the organization through accountability
A
Typical activities of project oversight cover which two dimensions?
A) Organization and project
B) Project and customer
C) Customer and industry
D) Industry and organization
E) Organization and customer
C
At the project level, all of the following are examples of oversight activities EXCEPT
A) Review project objectives
B) Track and assist the project to resolve bottlenecks
C) Project selection
D) Review status reports
E) Audit and review lessons learned
A
The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as
A) Portfolio Project Management
B) Project Office Management
C) Project Management Optimization
D) Project Priority Matrix Management
E) Resource Allocation Optimization
E
Project office functions typically include which of the following?
A) Create and maintain the internal project management information system
B) Recruit and select project managers
C) Train personnel in project management techniques
D) Develop risk management programs
E) All of these are typically functions of the project office
C
The in-depth review of individual projects at specific phases in the project life cycle is known as
A) Project Assessment Checkpoint Reviews
B) Go/Kill Decision Review Methodology
C) Phase Gate Methodology
D) Stargate Review Methodology
E) Project Implementation Review
A
During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Does this project align with our strategic direction?” be answered?
A) Proposal
B) Screening and selection
C) Implementation plan
D) Progress evaluation
E) Closure
C
During which of the following phase gates would the questions “Are the resources needed identified and available?” and “Are tasks sequenced and is a time-phased budget established?” be answered?
A) Proposal
B) Screening and selection
C) Implementation plan
D) Progress evaluation
E) Closure
D
Which of the following is not one of the growth levels in the Organization Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3TM)?
A) Repeatable (formal application of project management)
B) Defined (institutionalization of project management)
C) Managed (management of project management system)
D) Expanded (expansion of project management system)
E) Optimized (optimization of project management system)
B
The first appearance of standard approaches to managing projects including scope statements and WBS occurs in which of the following Project Management Maturity Model Levels?
A) Ad Hoc Project Management
B) Formal Application of Project Management
C) Institutionalization of Project Management
D) Management of Project Management System
E) Optimization of Project Management System
D
Project audits are performed on all significant projects and lessons learned are recorded and used on subsequent projects in which of the following Project Management Maturity Model Levels?
A) Ad Hoc Project Management
B) Formal Application of Project Management
C) Institutionalization of Project Management
D) Management of Project Management System
E) Optimization of Project Management System
B
Each gate within the phase gate review process should, at a minimum, include the following EXCEPT
A) Required deliverables
B) A plan to proceed
C) Gate criteria
D) Specific outputs
E) A clear yes/no decision on whether to go ahead
E
In which of the following Project Management Maturity Model Levels is the focus is on continuous improvement through incremental advancements of existing practices and by innovations using new technologies and methods?
A) Ad Hoc Project Management
B) Formal Application of Project Management
C) Institutionalization of Project Management
D) Management of Project Management System
E) Optimization of Project Management System
C
The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over a longer horizon ___________ after the project is implemented.
A) 1-2 years
B) 1-5 years
C) 5-10 years
D) 10-15 years
E) 15 years

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