Your family plays no part in your self-esteem
What you say or do to family members matters
People with high self-esteem do not blame others for the results of their actions
A sense of humor can be an asset in maintaining good self-esteem
Being pessimistic is a good way to improve your self-esteem
People with low self-esteem might be more susceptible to advertisements as they may believe a product can improve their life
Self-image is like a battery: a good one will last a long time, but it occasionally needs recharging
When it comes to self-esteem, nature includes the traits that we are born with
In regards to self-esteem, nurture relates to how you are treated by family and in your environment
When we believe we are unlovable, it is easy to love others
Which is the action that would contribute to a positive family atmosphere?
Acknowledge nice things others do for you
Which is not an example of a person with high self-esteem?
Consider the following statements. Which one does not belong?
Someone giving you lots of attention can bestow self-esteem upon you
Parents can contribute to a child’s lack of self-esteem if:
they expect the child to behave perfectly
An environment that is more conducive to the development of high self-esteem might include:
the child has trustworthy adults that love and care for him/her
People with high self-esteem:
accept their strengths and weaknesses
High self-esteem appears as:
the leader…guiding others to find their own inner strength, secure in knowing who they are and where they want to go in life
People who have high self-esteem can be profiled by the following characteristics:
High achievement in their personal strength areas
Steps to higher self-esteem might include:
Building self-esteem in families might include all the following except:
being quick to find fault
An outwardly self-confident person may believe he can overcome any challenge or obstacle, but actually have poor self-esteem and be quite insecure
Which one of the statements below would encourage the development of self-esteem in children?
“We have to figure out better strategies to help you achieve.”
It is important not to compare one family member to another family member because:
each member of the family should have their strengths highlighted
If your inner critic’s voice says, “See those people over in the corner, they’re all laughing and probably talking about me and laughing at my new hair style.” You can fight back by telling yourself:
“Just at the time I walked in the door, someone probably just told a joke and they were laughing at it. I think I’ll go say hi. They look like they’re having fun.”
To remind ourselves that we are valuable, competent, deserving and lovable persons, we can self-nurture ourselves by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
scheduling every moment with activities such as work, school, family chores, sports and school activities so that there is no time left
People with high self-esteem are not afraid to ask for help from friends when they need it. One way to ask for help would be:
ask someone to allow you to “vent” without trying to fix things
Children with high self-esteem are less likely to succumb to negative peer pressure, such as the pressure to experiment with drugs and alcohol
Rules and consequences should be communicated clearly to a child ahead of time
Family meetings can be used to address concerns
For the typical income family, what is the estimated cost of raising a second child?
The best method to prevent accidental shootings is to avoid keeping guns in the home
When treated with respect, children learn positive behaviors
It is not advised to begin taking over-the-counter medications (Aspirin, Advil, Pepto Bismal, etc.) during pregnancy without speaking with your doctor
What category of support consumes the most money?
Allowing a child to climb in and out of a shopping cart should be encouraged as this increases coordination
When dealing with problems all of the following can be very effective with children except:
brainstorming possible punishment
It is important to win every ‘battle’ that arises with a child
A cooling off period can lead to:
Consistency with discipline and decisions between parents is an effective discipline tool
Young children swimming with a lifeguard present do not need close supervision by a parent or care giver because the lifeguard is responsible and trained in lifesaving safety techniques
Because they are teaching tools, discipline and punishment are considered the same.
Punishment restrains a child temporarily and teaches an alternate behavior
Most children drown in residential pools. A fence enclosing the back yard (where most pools are located) is the least effective prevention to these children’s drowning
Negative methods of behavior correction include all but this:
Setting an example for proper behavior
“Good” parents never have difficulty disciplining their children
Parents who share their values and thoughts with their children enable the children to know and recognize their own values and beliefs
Storing toys in the pool is a safety technique. The children can not reach them when you do not want them to play with them
Clutter on the stairs has no affect on the risk of tripping and falling
When noting good behavior, be sure to:
Make the praise specific and frequent
When girls and boys 14-18 years old make half of their daily grains whole grains, how many ounces will be eaten?
3 – 4
It is recommended that you make half your plate fruits and vegetables, switch to skim or 1% milk, make at least half your grains whole, and vary your protein food choices
Cutting back on and eliminating solid fats and added sugars will help reduce empty calories
Staying within your personal calorie limit can help you achieve or maintain a healthy weight
For most people, the more vigorous and longer lasting the exercise, the greater the health benefits
When reading labels, look for lean, low-fat, or fat-free as well as low in saturated and/or trans fatty acids
Choose foods that limit the intake of:
all of the above
You can eat as many empty calories as you want during the day because they do not count towards your daily totals
According to ChooseMyPlate you should get the majority of your grain requirements from refined products such as white rice and white bread
According to ChooseMyPlate teenagers should exercise for 90 minutes daily, two times each day
When it comes to using calories, the more you weigh the more you will use
One slice of bread and two large bagels equal one serving
Dried beans and peas are an excellent source of protein
Spinach and broccoli are considered to be dark green vegetables
One way to meet your fiber needs is to choose foods made from whole grains
Eating foods such as fruits that are low in calories per cup instead of some other higher-calorie food may be useful in helping to lower calorie intake
Eggs and meat are high in protein and part of the same food group.
To reduce fat in your diet, use additional cheese servings rather than fish
One serving of strawberries would equal approximately:
6 large strawberries
To sustain weight loss in adulthood: Participate in at least 60 to 90 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity ________________ while not exceeding caloric intake requirements.
1 serving of french fries would equal______________
10 French Fries
In general, 1 cup of milk or yogurt, 1 ½ ounces of natural cheese, or 2 ounces of processed cheese can be considered as 1 cup from the milk group
Even though oils are not a food group they are still part of the USDA recommendation because they
provide essential nutrients
Each of the food groups in MyPlate provide all of the nutrients you need; therefore, eating from any one group will provide all your daily nutrients
Engaging in regular physical activity and reducing sedentary activities can:
all of the above
To help you avoid weight gain, which of the following suggestions should you follow?
all of the above
In order to trim the fat in your diet, all foods below could have been eliminated with the exception of
To reduce your intake of saturated fat and cholesterol:
All of the above answers address the reduction of saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet.
What factors should be considered when determining the amount of food servings you need each day?
all of the above
Before buying soups, bread and frozen meals, comparing sodium amounts and selecting foods with the lowest numbers is helpful to your diet.
Which of the following vegetables is considered a starchy vegetable?
Meat and dried beans are high in:
This nutrient can be hidden in food and has twice as many calories as other nutrients
This nutrient is found mainly in fruits and vegetables
vitamins /amp; minerals
This nutrient is needed for proper growth and development
Six to eight servings are required daily
This helps to flavor food but too much can be harmful, especially to blood pressure
__________is an empty calorie food that some people call liquid candy.
__________is the amount of energy released when nutrients are burned.
Food contains __________; however, some food is a better/richer source than others.
Muscle is made of __________.
The nutrient that provides 4 calories per gram and gives the body energy is__________.
_________ provide the body with 4 calories per gram and helps the body with growth and development.
__________ provide the body with 9 calories a gram and provide energy as well as insulates the body.
A candy bar is an example of food that provides calories but few essential nutrients
The study of how the body uses food
__________are an excellent food source for the mineral calcium
These are fat soluable vitamins
Vitamins A, D, E, K
Regular exercise must accompany smart eating for weight control
Milk and dairy products are excellent sources for:
Fried foods and sweets are sources for:
Bread, pasta, and rice are excellent sources of
Peanut butter and cottage cheese each provide which two sources?
What percentage of your total calories per day should come from protein?
All of the following are complete proteins except for:
Carbohydrates are converted into:
The most concentrated source of calories comes from:
Nutritionists suggest that no more than ________ percent of your daily calories should come from fat.
Cholesterol comes from which source?
The human body’s main source of energy comes from:
Of the following minerals which one can be found in trace amounts in the human body?
Vitamin ___ is the only vitamin the body can produce naturally.
Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
____________ is/are an integral part of blood, which carries nutrients to all parts of the body
Water makes up approximately how much of a human’s body weight?
A high intake of fat is associated with some types of cancer.
Cheese is high in calcium and what other nutrient?
The basic nutrients are vitamins, minerals, proteins, fats, water, and carbohydrates.
Minerals regulate body fluids, assist in various body functions, contribute to growth, and aid in building tissues.
What are some external influences that may lead a person to be at risk for anorexia?
Our society’s cultural reinforcement to be thin
Obesity is defined as:
Storage of excess body fat
Effective means of managing weight include:
do not use food as a reward, limit snacking and the type of snacks, control portions and consume less calories
Most eating disorders began at age:
Eating disorders are not only physical they are also the result of _________.
behavioral and emotional pressures
The healthiest way to lose weight is to:
decrease calories and increase activity
Rehabilitation for eating disorders is done with a team approach and lasts __________.
Binge Eating Disorder is diagnosed by “experiencing” binge-eating episodes (without purging) more than _______ time(s) per week for _____________.
Two; six months
Most “fad” diets do NOT include:
Emotional complications of obesity may be just as serious as physical complications. Which is not an emotional sign?
A safe weight loss plan recommends a weight loss of no more than __________ pounds per week.
Healthy and long-lasting weight loss involves _________ changes.
Children of obese parents suffer an increased risk of becoming obese. What factors could lessen this risk? You may select more than one answer for this question.
eating together as a family instead of in front of the TV, planning meals to limit high-fat foods, limiting portion sizes
Treatment for eating disorders include all BUT:
Ignoring the problem and hope that it will go away
Health related physical complications of obesity for all age groups include:
increased risk of heart disease, developing Type II diabetes and breathing problems
Environmental factors that can contribute to our epidemic of obesity include all of the following except:
Obesity is described as _________ by the World Health Organization.
an escalating epidemic
All of the body systems and/or organs below are affected by anorexia nervosa with the exception of:
Which is not a characteristic of BED?
A relationship between your height and weight that can diagnose obesity.
Involves the person binging, or consuming lots of food in small amounts of time, then purging, or ridding themselves of the calories they consumed by vomiting, abusing laxatives or diuretics (water pills)
Family, doctor, dietician
“Key players” in eating disorder treatment
Genetics, excess energy (calorie) intake, low self
Physical factors that may cause obesity
Control portions and consume less calories.
A tip for managing weight loss and obesity
A diet that promises unrealistic, fast results.
Have recurrent episodes where they consume large amounts of food (and calories) in a short period of time, but do not “purge” their intakes following the binge
Binge Eating Disorder
The state of excessive body fat storage that increases the risk of health problems.
Growth of fine, downy hair, perhaps in response to a decrease in body temperature
A physical effect of anorexia
An intense fear of gaining weight, often do not eat enough food, or eat almost nothing.
How many total grams of fat, carbohydrate and protein are listed on the food label shown below?
13g fat, 31g carbohydrate and 5g protein
The food label insures uniform definitions for terms that provide special descriptions as “light,” “low fat,” and “high fiber.”
Food labels can make claims about the relationship between a nutrient, food, disease or health related condition. For example: calcium helps prevent osteoporosis.
The % daily value on a food label is based on our personal dietary goals.
When reading the food label, the serving size determines the basis for the food’s nutrient content.
One item that must be included on the food label is:
Which of the following foods are exempt from the food labeling law?
ready to eat foods as foods at a bakery, deli and/or candy store items
How many calories are in one serving?
Which one of the nutrients listed below has a direct, proven relationship to increasing LDL (“bad”) cholesterol levels and therefore, an increased risk of coronary heart disease?
Trans fatty acids
One serving provides __________ percent of the suggested carbohydrate intake.
How many total calories and calories from fat are listed on the food label?
260, 120 from fat
To ensure that dietary terms mean the same for any product on which they appear, uniform definitions for terms which describe a food’s nutrient content have been developed such as:
“light,” “low fat,” and “high fiber”
Which is NOT an example of a claim food labels can make about the relationship between a nutrient or food and a disease or health-related condition?
Will make you thinner
The % daily value on a food label:
is based on a 2,000 calorie diet
How can consumers know if a product contains trans fat if it’s not identified on the nutrition label?
If the ingredient list includes the words “shortening,” “partially hydrogenated vegetable oil” or “hydrogenated vegetable oil,” the food contains trans fat.
One item that must be included on the food label is:
Saturated fats and trans fats
The food label law is mandatory for the following foods:
most foods except meat /amp; poultry
According to this label, what is the serving size for this product?
One serving of this product provides ________ percentage of the total fat intake.
Are all fats bad for you?
No. Polyunsaturated fats and monounsaturated fats (such as olive oil, canola oil, soybean oil, and corn oil) have positive effects on the body.
The following are voluntary components a manufacturer may choose to included on the food label:
calories from saturated fat
To limit foods that have no %DV of ingredients such as trans fat and sugar you should ________________.
compare the labels of similar products and choose the food with the lowest amount.
Standardized serving sizes:
make nutritional comparisons of similar products easier
“You don’t listen to me, because you are always talking on the phone with her.”
I feel angry when you don’t listen to me because I feel you care more about her than you do me.
Correct the sentence below to reflect an “I” statement.
I feel disrespected when my curfew is 9:00 PM on the weekends, because I feel that I am a responsible, truthful young adult now.
“I” messages include:
talking about how you feel, what you think or what you need and the reasons why
Correct the sentence below to reflect an “I” statement.
I feel very disappointed that a customer was unhappy with my job performance because I realize that customer satisfaction is a top priority.
“You never let me go out with my friends, Mom!”
I feel frustrated when you won’t allow me to go out with my friends because I earned a night out.
“You always interrupt me!”
I feel mad when you interrupt me because I need to be heard.
“I” messages are used to:
communicate positively and effectively.
“You are always telling me that I never clean my room, but I do clean it!”
I feel discouraged when you say I do not clean my room because I do try to keep my room clean.
“I” messages DO NOT include:
Correct the sentence below to reflect an “I” statement.
I feel a mistake has been made on the grading of this answer and I think the answer needs to be graded again
Most of us use roadblocks from time to time. Some common mistakes we make might include:
All of the above.
Jose would like to know about his Uncle’s death. He feels his Dad is avoiding the subject for some reason. Identify what Jose could do to help ease the communication process.
Use “I” messages to help prevent his dad from becoming defensive.
It is easier to communicate with someone while watching TV, because those “awkward” moments can be avoided.
Shaquan’s mother is trying to discuss the week’s calendar with him. While she is talking he continues to work on the computer and turns up the radio. What communication roadblock is he using?
Some things one should NOT do when trying to communicate effectively include:
all of the above
At the dinner table, Sonia, who is 15, brings up the fact that the Homecoming dance is in two weeks and she wants to go with her good friend Joe. Joe is 17, and Joe is a friend of the family. Her parents have allowed her to go with Joe and his family on other occasions. She approaches the subject with her parents, but Mom and Dad keep bringing up the fact that she is too young to date. Sonia is confused as to why she can go with Joe on other occasions but can not go with Joe to the dance.
Nicole heard a rumor: Her boyfriend Joseph was seen at the mall with her best friend. Nicole is afraid Joseph is going to break up with her. When Joseph comes over to visit, Nicole is visibly upset. However, when Joseph asks her if anything is bothering her, Nicole simple says: “Nothing is wrong.” She refuses to talk with Joseph about why she is upset. This is an illustration of which roadblock?
Josie and Billy have dated so long they often are able to finish each other’s sentences. Although they think it is cute, it can be the beginning of which communication roadblock?
Melissa: You know, I’ve been thinking a lot about where to go to college lately.
Dad: Of course, you’ll want to go to the best school in the state, my alma mater, for your pre-med classes.
Melissa: Well, my S.A.T. math scores were really low and my art teacher says she is going to exhibit my last drawing in the big art show downtown. I really love to draw and paint. I’m thinking of exploring an art career.
Dad: We all struggle with some subjects, but you’ll thank me when you have your medical practice some day.
Melissa: Dad, my talents and abilities are not the same as yours. I really have a passion for art. I love to express myself in my drawing. This is my most recent drawing. It means a lot to me.
In the above scenario, what is the communication roadblock?
This roadblock is present when a person assumes they know what the other person is going to say and they are too impatient to wait and listen.
Silence can symbolize
all of the above
The following can assist in positive communication
having another person present
Why are I messages so important in effective communication?
so the person you talk to will not become defensive
Which of the following are roadblocks to effective communication?
a,b and c
Coming to an accurate conclusion regarding another’s persons thoughts and feelings on a subject is easy when you ‘read someone’s mind’.
Referring to the example of Kyle and mixed messages in the Work File Review– Kyle may have been more successful if he:
removed his facial piercing ornaments
When someone says: “You should know what is wrong.”, this is a example of which communication roadblock?
Indications you are listening include:
eye contact, looking at the person who is speaking
Asking questions is an indication you are interested in what the person is saying and that you are listening.
Examples of important functional skills that are not visible to others, but are affected by alcohol, are thinking skills like evaluating risk and processing information. This means that steering, braking, lane changing, and response time could be affected in a driver that has been drinking.
After drinking and becoming drunk, coffee can make you more alert and improves your coordination.
People who drink too much only hurt themselves.
All 50 states enacted a BAC limit of .08 as the legal limit for drunk drivers over the age of 21.
Gender, emotion, mental status, and amount of time throughout consumption are a few factors that can change the effects each time alcohol is consumed by an individual.
Drinking alcohol can effect the heart, liver, stomach, and brain.
The more body weight a person has the quicker alcohol is absorbed.
When you get your driver’s license, you are automatically giving “implied consent” to take a breath test or other test to measure your blood alcohol.
Very few teens are concerned with the issue of drinking and driving.
The average BAC among fatally injured drinking drivers is .16.
It is considered a DUI if the driver’s Blood Alcohol Content level is at or above .08.
Mandatory license revocation is effective against drunk driving.
Law enforcement officials are unable to reduce the numbers of drunk drivers by marking the license plate to indicate ownership in the family of someone whose driver’s license is suspended or revoked for alcohol offenses.
Driving is a right all people have, just like drinking is a right, thus drinking drivers should not be punished if they do not hurt anyone.
Mandatory license plate revocation is ineffective against drunk driving.
The varieties of beer and malt liquor wine coolers have the same alcohol content.
What does the acronym BAC mean?
Blood Alcohol Content
Out of the following drinks, the highest alcohol content belongs to:
What is the definition of a standard drink for beer?
One measure that can be used to reduce drinking and driving is:
restricting night time driving by young people
As a family member or friend of someone who abuses or is dependent on alcohol you should
focus on all of the answers below
a set of physical and mental birth defects that result when a mother drinks alcohol during her pregnancy
When helping a pregnant woman with a drinking addiction you should not:
expect instant success
Which amount of alcohol is safe for a pregnant woman to drink?
No amount of alcohol is safe.
Which of the following is a problem a baby may have if the mother drinks alcohol while she is pregnant?
all of the above
The Acronym FAS means:
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
What passes the ingested alcohol from the mother to the baby?
Which is not a sign of FAS?
What is the umbrella term that describes the range of effects that can occur in an individual whose mother drank alcohol during pregnancy?
Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder
Which of the following statements is false?
The effects of FAS are all reversible.
All of the following are symptoms of alcoholism except for:
A chronic liver disease caused by excessive alcohol consumption is known as:
Blood Alcohol Content (BAC), is a standard used to:
Determine between sobriety and intoxication
Which of the following is not a common side effect of Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD)?
Moderate to Excessive Binge Drinking can cause:
Cardiac Arrhythmia (abnormal rhythms) and sudden cardiac death
If you are the driver of a vehicle, there is no safe level of alcohol consumption.
Alcohol abuse and dependence can
both of the answers above
The best way to avoid a dangerous situation involving drunk driving is to:
Avoid alcohol and drugs altogether because you don’t need them anyway.
According to research what would be the single most effective deterrent for drinking and driving?
Automatic license revocation
What is the leading cause of death among teenagers aged 15 through 19?
Alcohol in the stomach…
All answers are correct.
___________ are more likely to become alcoholics.
children of alcoholic parents
This law imposes potential liability on the host of a party if alcohol is served to an obviously intoxicated person or a minor.
Drugs that are normally safe for consumption, when taken properly, and are available without a prescription are classified as:
over the counter drugs (OTC)
Having no control over the use of a drug is considered:
Long-term effects of this class of drugs can include flashbacks, schizophrenia, depression, and possible death.
The most widely misused over the counter (OTC) medication is cough/cold medication.
Marijuana is a mind altering drug and is classified as a:
This group of substances can produce chemical vapors that can be inhaled to produce a mind-altering effect.
Stimulants slow the speed of the brain activity and the spinal cord.
The use of inhalants is often referred to as the “silent epidemic” because many teens discover that they are inexpensive to obtain, easy to hide, and the easiest way to get high.
Stimulants speed up brain and spinal cord activity.
Hallucinogens are used to treat pain and induce anesthesia.
Match the drug with the street name or classification.
Cocaine – Coke
Heroin – Smack
Steroids – Juice
Marijuana – Pot
LSD – Acid
Methamphetamine – Crystal Meth
Inhalants – Whippets
Depressants – Roofies
Changes in eating habits can be a physical sign of addiction.
Mood swings are psychological/emotional signs of addiction.
Stealing to finance the addiction is a physical sign of addiction.
Weight gain or loss is a physical sign of addiction.
Hiding drug use from family and/or friends is a psychological or emotional sign of addiction.
What two steps listed below can help a teen drug user get off and stay off drugs?
Avoid places where drugs/alcohol are present, Seek a treatment program that caters to teens/young adults.
Events, situations, or surroundings that make a demand on the body are known as:
This hormone is released during the “fight or flight” reaction period.
Stress that relates directly to a particular incident or situation is known as:
This stress is associated with long-term problems.
The automatic and instant response that alerts one to a threat and helps prepare one to face action or flee is called the:
“fight or flight” reaction
The use of alcohol, drugs and/or tobacco is often associated with chronic stress.
Depression is a disorder that includes feelings of hopelessness and sadness, but is seldom related to stress issues.
Panic attacks normally indicate one is under a great amount of stress.
Which is not a physical sign of stress?
Physical changes that occur in the body that prepare a person to respond to stress are known as?
Which of the following might be stress reducers?
goal setting and time management
This type of stress response is activated during emergency situations or, in a milder form, at a time when the pressure’s on but there’s no actual danger:
fight or flight reaction
If a person frequently feels tense, upset, worried, or stressed, it may be a sign of _________.
Stress management skills are techniques used to help you cope and to prevent or lessen harmful effects produced by the stress response.
To your body, stress is synonymous with
The hormone that is commonly excreted during a stressful situation is:
Which of the following is not a good strategy for reducing stress?
Maria is very nervous about her plans to go swimming with some friends because she has always been afraid of the water. Which solution might be a positive way to cope with her fear/stress.
Discuss your concerns with your friends and use this as a step toward managing this stress.
All of the following are needs except:
Next year, I will be the first chair clarinet player in the concert band. This is an example of a:
Setting goals helps with all of the following except:
Short-term goals can take all of the following amounts of time except for:
Marnie wants to lose ten pounds before her senior prom in May, it is now January . This would be an example of a:
I plan to get an A in Life Management Skills. This is an example of a
Outcome goals are something you want to:
I plan to go to the batting cages two days a week in order to improve my hitting. This is an example of a:
I plan to practice my tennis drills everyday all summer so that I can maintain my #1 seed on the tennis team this year. This is an example of a:
Goals must be _________ and _______________.
specific and measurable
After graduating from college, I will be an forensic scientist. This is an example of a:
I plan to go to baseball tryouts tomorrow. This is an example of a:
When writing down your goals, always list them in a ____________ way.
Positive steps used to reach your outcome goals are:
setting performance goals
Why should you write your goals down?
it is one step for insuring success
Boys, because they use more violent methods, commit suicide more often than girls. Although girls attempt suicide more frequently than boys.
1-800-SUICIDE is a suicide prevention hotline.
It may be helpful to ask a friend who appears overly depressed, withdrawn, or grief-stricken whether he/she has ever considered suicide as a solution to his/her problems.
An overwhelming problem, real or imagined, can be the catalyst to prompt someone to think about suicide.
Most young people who commit suicide have made a clear decision that death is their best option.
Most teen suicides might have been prevented if those teens had developed life management skills including coping skills.
Which of the following is NOT a suicide risk factor?
asking for help whenever you need it
People who commit suicide do not warn others.
Once a person feels suicidal, he/she will remain suicidal for the rest of his/her life .
Improvement in a person’s demeanor who has considered suicide following a serious personal crisis or serious depression does not mean that the risk of suicide is over.
Abusing drugs, or alcohol and getting in trouble with the law does not have any correlation with suicide attempts.
Suicide is a permanent reaction to a temporary problem. A person who has thoughts of suicide can be helped by someone who has the confidence to step in, take time and help.
Which of the following is NOT a suicide risk factor?
accepting your imperfections and mistakes in life
Suicidal people clearly want to die.
Feeling lonely, discouraged, or depressed once in a while is something most of us experience. However, feeling down and hopeless for long periods of time may mean the person needs to seek help.
When talking with someone who is thinking about suicide, listen intelligently. Encourage a suicidal person to talk to you. Do not give false reassurances that everything will be okay. Be an “active listener.”
Which of the following are NOT teen warning signs of suicide?
joining a new activity to learn a new skill or for self-improvement
When a suicidal crisis is suspected, stay calm, stay with the suicidal person and ask another person to get help as quickly as possible.
Teens who attempt suicide often feel loss or rejection. These teens may feel suicide is a way to get even with those who have rejected them.
Trust your judgment and do not be misled by ignoring the suicide signals. If you believe someone is in danger of committing suicide, act on that belief.
Which of the following is a suicide fact?
Most suicide attempts are by temporarily confused persons in a temporary crisis.
Which of the following is a way to prevent a suicide?
Help the person explore resources and suggest person(s) or agency to help, offering to contact them.
The Lemon Law applies to the purchase of all automobiles.
Purchases based on needs and/or wants represent:
When a consumer makes purchases based on their needs or wants they are:
By law, consumers now have the right to be protected from dangerous products and misleading ads.
According to the Lemon Law, if you are not satisfied with the purchase of your new car, your new car can be returned or replaced.
This Act protects the privacy and accuracy of information in a credit check.
Fair Credit Reporting Act
The right to be heard insures consumers can communicate dissatisfactions
In Florida, a Lemon Law booklet must be given to the purchaser of all new automobiles.
This federal law governs consumer product warranties and requires that manufacturers and sellers of consumer products provide consumers with detailed information about warranty coverage.
Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act
Under this Act, you have the right to see the credit history maintained by a credit bureau about you (i.e. seeing your credit report), and under certain conditions they must provide you with a copy of your report free of charge.
Fair Credit Reporting Act
Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, credit bureaus are required to report information accurately and to remove or correct information that is outdated or inaccurate.
This Act covers personal property leased by an individual for a period of more than four months for personal, family or household use.
Truth in Leasing Act
What options are there for a consumer who is still not satisfied after speaking with a store manager?
b and c
In Florida, if a new vehicle is in the shop for 15 days or less during the first year the car is considered a lemon.
This Act requires institutions disclose what credit will actually cost the consumer.
Truth in Lending Act
The right to____________ means the consumer will be protected from false and misleading advertising.
Cash substitutes, such as credit cards or debit cards, are a safe alternative to carrying cash.
A secured credit card is only issued to people who do not have a savings account.
A debit card is a line of credit and interest may accrue if the monthly balance is not paid in full.
Borrowed money of any kind usually involves interest charges.
One of the disadvantages of using electronic money is it is possible to lose track of one’s budget.
The amount of interest you are charged yearly is called:
Annual Percentage Rate (APR)
Interest calculated not only on the original principal but also on the interest already accumulated is called:
The rating credit companies use to see if you are a good credit risk is called:
The three C’s (character, collateral, and capacity)
An institution’s evaluation of whether a person is suitable to receive credit is called:
The card company totals your balance each day during the billing period, adds these daily balances together and divides by the number of days in the billing period is called:
Average daily balance method
Which ELECTRONIC CARD cannot be used randomly at a variety of stores and for a variety of services?
single purpose credit cards
Identity theft can occur in all of the following ways except:
shredding all documents that have personal information such as tax information, address, and account numbers
The ______________card can be used anywhere.
__________ are used in place of writing checks. The amount you spend using this card will be deducted from your checking account.
Which of the listed cards can be used in place of cash?
all of the above
Select an alternative to using credit.
Any and/or all of the above.
To earn a good credit rating, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
Pay bills after due date
Three of the four statements below represent your credit responsibilities. Select the one answer that does not represent your credit responsibilities.
Have the credit card bill sent to a temporary address.
To help prevent fraudulent use of your credit cards, ask the clerk to destroy carbons of receipts with your signature, and keep all your receipts in a safe place. Do not give your account number to unknown (unsolicited) callers.
No more than 10% of your monthly income should go toward credit card payments.
To whom should you report the loss or theft of your credit and ATM cards?
The card issuers within 24 hours of the loss or theft
Your credit line is based on your monthly income, your current debt, and length of residence at your current address.
A definite warning signal that indicates you are having serious credit management problems include:
All of the above.
It is not necessary to read credit contracts and agreements before signing them because they all have the same terms.
The more time you take to repay the money you borrow, the more interest you will pay.
The money one makes is not necessarily the money one takes home. This income represents your salary before taxes are taken out of it.
Before an employer can deduct taxes from your paycheck this form must be filled out.
At the end of every year, before you can file your taxes, your employer must send you this form.
This abbreviation represents social security payments taken on a paycheck.
This is the income you receive after all the deductions have been taken from your paycheck.
What is another term for a bounced check?
non-sufficient funds (NSF)
Any amount of money that is added to your account is called:
What is it called when any amount of money is debited (subtracted) from the checking account?
Insurance that guarantees that if your institution fails, you will not lose up to $250,000 of your money in that institution is called:
A financial account that allows you to withdraw and deposit money using a check, debit card or ATM card is a _______ account.
A type of check that has a bank’s guarantee of payment is a
o write a person’s own signature on the back of a check before cashing, depositing or giving it to some one else is called an ____________.
A type of check that you can purchase for a fee from banks or travel agencies is a ______________________.
A tax levied on the working public to help support the medical expenses of people needing medical care is __________.
A check, which has cleared the bank, can still bounce.
A deposit would appear as a debit on your bank statement.
A good check writing practice is to write the check before filling in the check register and calculating your new checkbook balance.
If you use an ATM card or a Debit card, transactions will be treated as if you have written a check.
In order to open up a checking account, one must fill out a signature card with the financial institution.
To reconcile a checking account, you have to make sure your check register and the bank’s statement agree on how much is in the account.
An “outstanding” check is a check that you have written and the check has cleared the bank and been returned to you
Choose the endorsement that is representative of the example:
134 263 894
Choose the endorsement that is representative of the example:
For Deposit Only
134 263 894
What type of deposit is illustrated below?
Pay to the order of
134 263 894
What is the amount of the check written for Brent’s Hair Designs on January 16?
What is the balance after the transfer on January 17?
What is the balance after check 304 is entered?
On January 20, a payroll check is automatically deposited. What is the current balance?
A debit card is used to purchase groceries at Fresh Foods on January 22. What is the balance after this transaction?
An ATM card is used on January 24 to withdraw cash. What is the balance after this transaction?
The outstanding checks total_________________.
Subtracting line 5 from 4 on the reconciliation form should equal:
The amount of checks or debits listed on the January bank statement is______________.
Add line 2 and line 3 on your reconciliation form. What is the sum for line 4?
This service is NOT important when comparing banks:
debit card design
All banks offer the following service:
deposits and withdrawals
When you use your debit card to get cash you have:
withdrawn money from your checking account
One advantage to using your debit card is:
It is safer than carrying cash
If you sign a check and don’t fill anything else out on it:
It is a blank check for any amount and can be cashed by anyone
The FDIC insures all bank accounts up to:
The Truth in Savings Act requires banks to:
disclose the annual percentage yield on your account
A check register allows you to:
record the date and amount of each transaction you make every time you make one
The balance in your checkbook:
is only correct if your record all transactions made by you and your bank
If you write “Pay to the order of Jane Doe” and sign your name on the back of your check, it is considered:
a special endorsement
One advantage of check writing is:
You have a written record of your payment
Keeping an accurate check register:
lets you know your balance
An advantage of using a debit card is:
You have a personal PIN number for added safety if the card is stolen
When using debit cards always remember:
Debit cards can be a way to learn to manage money if used responsibly
A credit report:
determines your credit score, a summary of your past and current credit usage predicting your future credit performance.
All checks shown in your check register but not on the bank account statement are called:
The three R’s of Recycling stand for:
reduce, reuse and recycle
The most efficient way to eliminate waste in our world is to:
When buying recycled products look for:
the highest recycled content
Recycling paper does all but the following:
saves fluid for printing on paper
Household hazardous wastes include all the following EXCEPT:
baking soda, lemon oil, and borax
The best method of disposing of household hazardous waste is:
taking it to your local Household Hazardous waste station
Corrosive refers to products that eat away at materials. They include such solutions as:
choice 2 and choice 3 only
What common household product when mixed with bleach can produce dangerous chemical fumes?
Products that create deadly vapors are known as:
Products that are poisonous to you and pets are known as:
Paper that cannot be recycled includes:
waxed milk/juice cartons, plastic laminated packages
Recyclable plastic products will have the following code molded into the bottom:
Motor oil can be disposed of best in the following manner:
calling your local garbage collection agency for a referral
Household hazardous waste can be eliminated by preparing your own cleaning products using the following ingredients EXCEPT:
Downcycling is defined as:
lower grade of plastic due to recycling
Reducing, which is the first step in recycling, is considered:
Which is not one of the three R’s?
All of the following types of paper cannot be recycled except for:
White vinegar is an alternative cleaning product that helps:
One of the most common household toxins, benzene can be found in the following:
Products that eat away at other materials are known as:
Which of the following is not considered hazardous waste?
The Government Agency that was created to protect our natural resources is:
Environmental Protection Agency
Precycling means making environmentally sound decisions
at the store before taking the product home
Toxic chemicals are found:
in many household products
Nontoxic means a product is:
not poisonous to humans
(female) Identify structure number 1.
Label part 1.
(female) Identify structure number 2.
(female) Identify structure number 3.
(female) Identify structure number 4.
(female) Identify structure number 5.
(female) Identify structure number 6.
The __________________ is a pear-shaped muscular organ that houses the developing fetus.
The ______________is the lining of the uterus and is sloughed off each month during menstruation.
The ____________ are located on either side of the uterus and serve as a passage way to the uterus.
The _____________is the female reproductive gland that matures the egg/ova.
The muscular organ that stores urine is the____________.
Ovaries are about the size of small grapefruits.
A tube called the _______________extends from the bladder to the outside of the body.
The _____________is located at the neck of the uterus (bottom of the uterus) and must efface and dilate during labor to aid the delivery of a baby.
Revolution is the process of releasing mature eggs each month.
The process of ______________is the periodic shedding of the endometrial lining.
Approximately every twenty eight days the female begins a new ___________cycle.
The female reproductive organ that houses and matures the egg is called the _________.
The releasing of the mature egg is a process called________.
After the release of the mature egg, it is guided by the fimbria into the ___________________.
When the male sex cell which is the ___________ unites with the female sex cell, _____________ takes place.
Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tubes.
The female reproductive system enables a woman to: produce eggs (ova), protect and nourish the fertilized egg until it is fully developed, and give birth.
The female reproductive system releases eggs through the process of ovulation. The eggs then travel to the uterus, which is the most common site for fertilization.
The egg is usually released from the ovary
in the middle of the menstrual cycle.
The ovaries produce a hormone called _____________ which triggers the maturation of the eggs.
Fertilization (egg meeting the sperm) occurs in the:
The path the ova (egg) takes in fertilization is:
ovary, fallopian tube, uterus
If the egg is not fertilized ______________ occurs.
The __________ is located at the bottom of the uterus and must dilate 8cm during childbirth.
A fertilized egg (embryo) attaches itself to the lining of the ____________ where the fetus develops.
The male sex cell is the ____________.
The regular menstruation cycle usually occurs every:
The female sex cell is the ____________.
The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called:
The lining of the uterus is also referred to as the:
The urethra extends from the:
bladder to the outside of the body
The endometrium is the lining of the uterus that is sloughed off during:
The bladder is a muscular organ that stores:
The best time to do a breast self-examination (BSE) is:
right after your period. If you do not have a regular period, do it on the same day each month
Breast cancer cannot be prevented, however, exercising regularly, avoiding alcohol, and maintaining a slim body, can reduce your risk of breast cancer.
This surgery, called ____________removes all or part of the breast and sometimes the surrounding tissues.
A risk factor is anything that increases a persons chance of getting a disease. Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for breast cancer?
people who breast feed their babies
A biopsy is the removal of a sample of tissue to see whether cancer cells are present. If they are not present, then the biopsy is said to be__________.
A/An __________is surgery to remove the breast tumor and a small amount of surrounding normal tissue.
A/An __________is an x-ray of the breast.
Women under 40 can and should take an active role in their breast health with regular breast self-examinations (BSE) and clinical breast exams. A regular BSE is a chance to check your breasts for lumps, thicknesses, or other changes every month. You should begin breast self-exams around age 20, but it is by no means your only defense against breast cancer.
“Press firmly to learn what your breasts feel like. A firm ridge in the lower curve of each breast is normal.” This step for BSE is not done unless you think you might have a breast lump.
Between the ages of 20 and 39, women should have a clinical breast examination by a health professional every 3 years.
Following the American Cancer Society’s guidelines for the early detection of breast cancer improves the chances that breast cancer can be diagnosed at an early stage and treated successfully.
The purpose of menstruation is:
to shed the lining of the uterus
The acronym PMS stands for:
A condition in which cells that look and act like cells of the lining of the uterus, but are found in other parts of the abdominal cavity is called:
For all the reproductive disorders, there is one preventive measure that is recommended for each. It is:
Risk factors for prostate cancer include each of the following except:
having a low fat diet
Prostate cancer typically:
choice 1 and choice 2 only
Developing a hernia is more common in women than men.
Prostate cancer can physically affect both men and women
Prostate cancer usually displays several symptoms in the early stages of development.
Ovarian cysts are common in women during their childbearing years.
Which warning sign(s) of breast cancer should be reported to your doctor?
all of the above
Breast Self-Exam (BSE) is an important defense in the early detection and prevention of breast cancer. BSE should be performed:
a few days after your menstrual cycle or the same time each month
Your chances of developing breast cancer dramatically increase with age. At what age do doctors recommend getting a yearly mammogram?
Like women, men can also develop breast cancer.
Biopsy is surgical procedure to check for:
For women in the United States, what is the lifetime risk of breast cancer?
1 in 8
Some risk factors for breast cancer cannot be changed, including:
The menstrual cycle has how many stages?
PMS occurs only in females who:
who are ovulating or who are in the first days of their menstral period
Risk factors for PMS that you cannot control include:
previous signs of anxiety, family history and age of 30
A high caffeine intake can affect PMS symptoms.
Exercise can relieve PMS symptoms.
Although most hernias are not painful, pain in the groin area can be one of the symptoms.
Hernias are more common in men because when the testicals descend through the inguinial canal, the opening of the canal does not close completely.
Most ovarian cysts are small and do not cause any symptoms.
African-American men are more likely to develop prostate cancer and die from it than Caucasian or Asian men.
The ___________is a muscular organ that stores urine.
The sac that regulates the temperature of the testes is the ___________.
The ___________ extends through the penis and is the tube that brings urine and semen out of the body.
The fluid containing sperm is called __________.
The ____________adds a sugary, rich, and nutritious fluid to sperm.
After sperm are produced, they are stored in the ___________.
______________ are produced in the testes.
The _____________, one of the male’s external sex organs, ejaculates semen.
During times of sexual arousal, the sperm leave their storage area and travel into long tubes called the ____________.
Along the way, sperm journey through the __________ where they are nourished by a nutritious fluid.
In addition, sperm receive a chemical fluid from the _____________. (This is the most common site of cancer in older men.)
_______________ is responsible for the development of male characteristics, including: muscle mass and stregth, fat distribution, bone mass and the sex drive.
At this point, the tube that carries the sperm outside the body meets the prostate gland. Before a male can ejaculate, the spongy tissue surrounding the penis called, ___________, becomes engorged with blood causing the penis to become rigid.
(male) Identify structure number 1.
(male) Identify structure number 3.
(male) Identify structure number 4.
(male) Identify structure number 5.
(male) Identify structure number 7.
(male) Identify structure number 8.
Developing a hernia is more common in women than men.
How is genital herpes transmitted?
Symptoms of genital herpes include:
B and C
Symptoms of Gonorrhea will always appear within men during the first 7-10 days after exposure to the Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium?
Since there are sometimes no symptoms of genital herpes, someone can have the disease and not know it.
In men, there are some noticeable symptoms or side effects if Gonorrhea is contracted.
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease that has no cure. Once a person has been infected, he/she will always have Gonorrhea and can pass it to another person.
Some people are infected with the herpes virus, but have no symptoms of the disease.
The part of the body most impacted by Hepatitis C is the:
Which of the following are symptoms of Hepatitis C?
all of the above are symptoms of Hepatitis C
Symptoms of gonorrheal infection include which of the following? Choose the best possible answer.
Painful, burning sensation when urinating, vaginal bleeding between periods, increased vaginal discharge
There is a treatment and a cure for Hepatitis C.
Having unprotected sex with an Hepatitis C (HCV) infected partner, may put you at risk for contracting HCV.
It is possible to have chronic Hepatitis C and not feel sick.
The incubation period for Syphilis is:
10 to 90 days
High-risk HPV can lead to:
Symptoms of HPV include:
A and C
The stages of Syphilis are:
Primary, Secondary , and Latent
During pregnancy, the syphilis bacterium can infect the unborn baby. Depending upon how long she has been infected, the unborn baby
All of the above
There is no treatment for HPV, although in otherwise healthy people, it usually goes away on its own.
HPV is the most commonly sexually transmitted infection.
What words are represented by the acronym AIDS?
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
What words are represented by the acronym HIV?
Human Immuno Deficiency Virus
To infect a person, HIV must:
enter the bloodstream.
indicate an HIV infection
HIV has been found in blood, semen, and urine.
ELISA and Western Blot are:
tests for the HIV antibodies.
There are several ways that HIV can be transmitted. Select the answer that is NOT a way to contract HIV.
The best way to avoid HIV is to:
AIDS is caused by a virus that at this time cannot be cured.
HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, was discovered in the early 1980s. Because it is a relatively new virus, there are many myths and misunderstandings that surround this virus.
HIV attacks the T-cells in the immune system.
The onset of AIDS, after infection, can take up to ten years.
In the latter stages of the disease, known as AIDS, the infected person often comes down with an opportunistic infection (AIDS defining illness). These infections are diseases which a healthy person’s immune system would usually protect against.
Select two examples of opportunistic infections for HIV positive individuals.
pneumcyistis carinii, Kaposi’s sarcoma
A type of cell the immune system uses to fight infections is:
Symptomatic Phase 2 of HIV may include:
All of the above
What behavior is not a risk factor in contracting HIV?
More than 90 percent of those who have HIV get it from:
sexual activity or drug use
Which of the following has NOT been shown to transmit HIV?
The “window period” for HIV is the time when the person is mostly likely to test positive for HIV antibodies.
Specific organisms, (that may be cellular) with biological, chemical, or thermal agents that cause disease. i.e. germs and virus, are called…
HIV is transmitted through the exchange of any HIV-infected body fluids.
During this phase,the person becomes infected and the virus is active. It is attacking T-cells and slowly weakening immune system. The infected person feels well and healthy.
Asymptomatic Phase 1
AIDS is caused by a fungus.
HIV is an equal opportunity virus. The CDC states the largest obstacle in combating the war on AIDS is “combating complacency.” This complacency is often displayed in the thought that “it won’t happen to me.”
A person can become infected with HIV if he/she is:
in direct contact with a HIV positive person’s bodily fluids such as blood or semen
During the third stage of HIV, the T-cell count is:
Less than 200
Individuals can become HIV infected from “deep kissing” especially when both individuals have open mouth sores or bleeding gums.
organisms that may cause diseases
HIV does not survive long outside the body and therefore can only be transmitted when any of the applicable body fluids from an infected individual enters an uninfected individual.
People infected with HIV will show the presence of:
One step of the HIV infection process is the T-cell is turned into a duplication mechanism that continues to make copies of the virus.
HIV has been found in:
blood, semen, and vaginal fluids
Drug treatment for HIV/AIDS can be effective but,
is very expensive and most often creates bad side effects
Which of the following tests are used to diagnose the presence of HIV?
Western Blot /amp; ELISA
Results of testing for HIV/AIDS can be obtained in:
The cure for HIV and AIDS is:
The most at-risk age group for HIV/AIDS:
young adults (15-25 year olds)
What part of the immune system does HIV attack?
Discriminating against people with HIV/AIDS is legal, because the disease is non-curable.
HIV is thought to be transmitted through:
Young people can help prevent HIV/AIDS by adjusting attitudes and behaviors towards the disease.
Which personal behavior would not lead to contracting HIV?
sharing food or drinks
During the primary infection phase of HIV/AIDS, most people may have flu-like symptoms, causing them to contact a doctor immediately.
The symptoms of HIV:
may not appear for 10 years
a disease of the mouth, characterized by small ulcers
Which of the following is not an opportunistic infection?
Thrush can be one sign of HIV/AIDS during the symptomatic stage.
Oral sex can transmit the HIV/AIDS virus just as readily as vaginal sex.
During the asymptomatic phase an infected person:
feels well and healthy
Risky behaviors which might increase the chances of becoming HIV/AIDS infected are:
all of the above
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