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Management and Supervision of Law Enforcement Personnel

True or False: Immediate contact with workers is the essential ingredient in the
supervisory process.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The most technically skilled persons usually make the best
supervisors.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Of all its supervisory personnel, the success of the agency is
most dependent on its middle managers.

A True
B False

B
True or False: With careful selection, a probationary period is not always
needed with newly promoted personnel.

A True
B False

B
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made most frequently by new supervisors is
called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

F
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made by not delegating authority to
subordinates is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

F
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a friendship is allowed to interfere
with a supervisor’s objectivity is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

E
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor does not separate
themselves from their subordinates is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

E
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor makes immediate
changes without clear cause is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

D
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor makes changes
without making them gradually and without the appropriate input of those that
will be affected is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

D
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor guarantees to make a
change in the workplace is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

C
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor attempts to shift
blame to others is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

B
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor attributes an
unpopular policy, rule or procedure to top management is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

B
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor states to
subordinates “Although I don’t agree, that’s the way our bosses want it, so
that’s how it has to be done” is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

B
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor acts like a dictator is
called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

A
Six common errors in the transition period for new supervisors are noted
below. The common error that is made when a supervisor relies too heavily on
issuing direct orders in non-emergency circumstances is called

A Overexerting Authority
B Avoiding Accountability
C Building False Hopes
D Excessive Revamping
E Striving for Popularity
F Over-supervising
G none of the above

A
True or False: “You can get into more management difficulty by repeatedly
refusing to make decisions than by occasionally making an incorrect one.”

A True
B False

A
True or False: Good supervisors must be human relations specialists.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Interpersonal skills are the most valuable skills for a supervisor
to develop.

A True
B False

A
There are five basic tendencies that define a person with highly developed
interpersonal skills. Check all below that apply;

A They maintain objectivity
B They are considerate
C They are skilled with the written word
D They convey clear and concise verbal instructions
E They manage participatively
F They earn respect
G They accept accountability for their decisions
H They communicate effectively

A B E F H
There are five basic tendencies that define a person with highly developed
interpersonal skills. The interpersonal skill that is the most valuable one needed
by a supervisor is called;

A Supervisors must maintain objectivity
B Supervisors must be considerate
C Supervisors must be skilled with the written word
D Supervisors must convey clear and concise verbal instructions
E Supervisors must manage participatively
F Supervisors must earn respect
G Supervisors must accept accountability for their

H
There are five basic tendencies that define a person with highly developed
interpersonal skills. The interpersonal skill that is earned by setting a good
example is called;

A Supervisors must maintain objectivity
B Supervisors must be considerate
C Supervisors must be skilled with the written word
D Supervisors must convey clear and concise verbal instructions
E Supervisors must manage participatively
F Supervisors must earn respect
G Supervisors must accept accountability for their

F
There are five basic tendencies that define a person with highly developed
interpersonal skills. The interpersonal skill that shows recognition that all
subordinates are different and cannot be handled in a uniform manner is called;

A Supervisors must maintain objectivity
B Supervisors must be considerate
C Supervisors must be skilled with the written word
D Supervisors must convey clear and concise verbal instructions
E Supervisors must manage participatively
F Supervisors must earn respect
G Supervisors must accept accountability for their decisions
H Supervisors must communicate effectively

B
There are five basic tendencies that define a person with highly developed
interpersonal skills. The interpersonal skill that creates a healthy atmosphere
which encourages subordinates to contribute is called;

A Supervisors must maintain objectivity
B Supervisors must be considerate
C Supervisors must be skilled with the written word
D Supervisors must convey clear and concise verbal instructions
E Supervisors must manage participatively
F Supervisors must earn respect
G Supervisors must accept accountability for their decisions
H Supervisors must communicate effectively

E
There are five basic tendencies that define a person with highly developed
interpersonal skills. The interpersonal skill that is vital to developing a
harmonious work group is called;

A Supervisors must maintain objectivity
B Supervisors must be considerate
C Supervisors must be skilled with the written word
D Supervisors must convey clear and concise verbal instructions
E Supervisors must manage participatively
F Supervisors must earn respect
G Supervisors must accept accountability for their decisions
H Supervisors must communicate effectively

A
True or False: The basic skills needed for success as a supervisor are the same
for both males and females.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The job of being a supervisor is the same for both males and
females.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A woman who wants to be an effective supervisor should take
the same approach that a male with similar aspirations should.

A True
B False

A
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that is the most important of the supervisor’s roles because it
permeates all of the others is called
.
A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors
A
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that is at the heart of getting workers to “willingly” work hard
toward department goals is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

A
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that comes into play because the supervisor is actually a member
of three groups is called
.
A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors
B
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that states that the immediate supervisor of a group of workers
must stay abreast of all conditions that could impact that group is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

C
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that states that the immediate supervisor is responsible for
eliminating duplicated effort, solving problems and simplifying procedures is
called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

C
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that involves line inspections is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

D
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that calls for the use of staff inspections by the agency is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

D
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility where a supervisor should use training and attitude correction is
called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

E
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility described as the “most exacting” of all the roles of immediate
supervisors is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

F
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that is the least understood by supervisors themselves is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

G
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that involves supervisors familiarizing themselves with the
symptoms of personal problems so as to prevent escalation of the problem is
called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

G
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that involves supervisors familiarizing themselves with the more
common behavioral patterns that often develop as a response to frustration is
called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

H
The eight basic supervisory responsibilities are shown below. The basic
responsibility that involves job stress and the stress relief process known as
catharsis is called

A Supervisors must be effective leaders
B Supervisors must be linking pins
C Supervisors must be focal points
D Supervisors must be guardians of ethical behavior
E Supervisors must be disciplinarians
F Supervisors must be evaluators
G Supervisors must be counselors
H Supervisors must be early detectors

H
The four essential elements of any formal organization are (check all that apply);

A A written mission statement
B A clear understanding about stated purposes and goals
C A division of labor among specialists
D A semi-rigid chain of command
E A rational organization or design
F A hierarchy of authority and accountability
G A formal personnel evaluation or performance appraisal system
H A formal training and career development system

B C E F
True or False: All supervisors are managers.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Staff authority allows managers to exercise direct control over
subordinates.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Line authority allows managers to exercise direct control over
subordinates.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Staff authority is possessed by all managers who act in an
advisory capacity to other managers.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Functional authority exists when a staff specialist is authorized
by agency policy to issue binding orders.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Authority, responsibility and accountability can be separated
depending on department needs.

A True
B False

B
True or False: A first level supervisor must delegate authority in order to
function effectively.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Tasks the supervisor does not understand or does not know how
to perform should be delegated.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Tasks beyond the capability of the subordinate should not be
delegated.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Tasks involving the rewarding or punishing of subordinates
should not be delegated.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Selection of the subordinate is the most important step in the
entire delegation process.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The subordinate should be told why he was chosen for a
delegated assignment.
.
A True
B False
A
True or False: The span of control rarely exceeds 10 to one.

A True
B False

B
The span of control rarely exceeds

A 6 to one.
B 8 to one.
C 10 to one.
D 12 to one.
E 15 to one.
F none of the above

D
True or False: Chain of command controls subordinates; unity of command
controls communications.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Chain of command controls communications; unity of command
controls subordinates.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The principle of Unity of Command does not apply under all
circumstances.

A True
B False

A
The four steps that should be included in Management by Objectives are (check
all that apply);

A Setting Goals
B Identifying Values
C Identifying the Mission
D Identifying Needs
E Setting Timetables
F Identifying what resources or assets should or should not be used
G Evaluating results
H Quantifying the success or failure for future training

A D E G
True or False: Policies tell what to do and how to do it.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Policies are general statements that are guides to decision
making.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Rules are inflexible; no exceptions are permitted beyond what is
stated by the rule.

A True
B False

A
Match the degree of flexibility and restrictiveness below to; POLICIES

A Most Flexibility and Least Restrictive
B Less Flexibility and More Restrictive
C Least Flexibility and most Restrictive

A
Match the degree of flexibility and restrictiveness below to; PROCEDURES

A Most Flexibility and Least Restrictive
B Less Flexibility and More Restrictive
C Least Flexibility and most Restrictive

B
Match the degree of flexibility and restrictiveness below to; RULES

A Most Flexibility and Least Restrictive
B Less Flexibility and More Restrictive
C Least Flexibility and most Restrictive

C
In simplest terms, planning tells managers what is to be accomplished and

A what resources are needed to ensure the accomplishment
B who is to accomplish it
C how it is to be accomplished
D when it is to be accomplished
E all of the above

C
True or False: As a general statement, any goals must conform to the overall
mission of the agency.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In formulating a plan, in terms of results, “band-aid” approaches
that only temporarily deal with a problem should be considered.

A True
B False

B
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. An Organizational
Plan is an example of one that is

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

A
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. A Recruitment Plan
is an example of one that is

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

A
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. A Personnel
Evaluation Plan is an example of one that is

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

A
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. A Promotion Plan is
an example of one that is

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

A
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. A Fiscal Plan is an
example of one that is

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

A
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. Miscellaneous
Personnel Plans are an example of ____________ plans.

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

A
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. Patrol Plans are an
example of ____________ plans.

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

B
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. Emergency Plans
are an example of ____________ plans.

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

B
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. Tactical Plans are
an example of ____________ plans.

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

B
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. Interdepartmental
Plans are an example of ____________ plans.

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

B
Plans can either be identified as Managerial or Operational. Community
Relations Plans are an example of ____________ plans.

A Managerial
B Operational
C none of the above

B
True or False: When a supervisor performs the work of his subordinates there
will be a loss of motivation and respect.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Leadership is something you can learn once and for all.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Certain individuals possess a larger share of commonly
recognized leadership traits.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Certain individuals possess a larger share of commonly
recognized leadership traits, but unless these traits are developed and
nurtured, no real leadership ability evolves.

A True
B False

A
Which of the 12 Principles of Leadership below involves the distinction between
delegation and abdication?

A Delegate fairly
B Maintain teamwork
C Make subordinates feel responsible
D Do not delegate final authority
E Make decisions
F Be consistent
G Know your job
H Know your subordinates

D
Which of the 12 Principles of Leadership below involves developing
subordinates by offering training?

A Delegate fairly
B Maintain teamwork
C Make subordinates feel responsible
D Do not delegate final authority
E Make decisions
F Be consistent
G Know your job
H Know your subordinates

H
Which of the 12 Principles of Leadership below involves avoiding the feeling
among subordinates, “Since I guess I’m not good enough to be let in on things
and trusted, I’ll only do what I’m told.”

A Delegate fairly
B Maintain teamwork
C Make subordinates feel responsible
D Do not delegate final authority
E Keep subordinates informed
F Be consistent
G Know your job
H Know your subordinates

E
Which of the 12 Principles of Leadership below involves the leader delegating
the proper amount of authority to the subordinate as a way to encourage them
to find better ways of working and solving problems?

A Delegate fairly
B Maintain teamwork
C Make subordinates feel responsible
D Do not delegate final authority
E Keep subordinates informed
F Be consistent
G Know your job
H Know your subordinates

C
Which of the 12 Principles of Leadership below involves avoiding the
appearance as a leader of wanting to cover himself by maintaining a
noncommittal posture?

A Delegate fairly
B Maintain teamwork
C Make subordinates feel responsible
D Do not delegate final authority
E Keep subordinates informed
F Be consistent
G Make decisions
H Know your subordinates

G
The Leadership Traits of Aware and Intelligent are known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

A
The Leadership Traits of Articulate and Open-minded are known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

A
The Leadership Traits of Energetic and Vigorous are known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

B
The Leadership Trait of Calm is known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

B
The Leadership Traits of Forceful and Decisive are known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

C
The Leadership Traits of Confident and Realistic are known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

C
The Leadership Traits of Friendly and Honest are known as

A Traits of the Mind
B Traits of the Body
C Traits of the Spirit
D none of the above

C
The Leadership Style that is effective when a new procedure is being
implemented is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

A
The Leadership Style that is effective when highly routine and repetitive
operations are being performed is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

A
The Leadership Style that is effective when a firm decision is needed to clarify
policies is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

B
The Leadership Style that is effective when an emergency exists is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

B
The Leadership Style that is effective when the employee is resistant to duties
is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

B
The Leadership Style that is effective when time constraints allow members of
the group to participate is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

C
The Leadership Style that is effective when members of the group have an
acceptable level of competence is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

C
The Leadership Style that is effective when subordinates are extremely
competent is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

D
The Leadership Style that is effective when subordinates are highly motivated is
known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

D
The Leadership Style that is effective when informal leaders are available to fill
the leadership void is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

E
The Leadership Style that erodes morale and discipline of subordinates is
known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

E
The Leadership Style that is the least likely to accomplish the goals of the
agency is known as

A The “By the Book Leader”
B The Autocratic Leader
C The Democratic Leader
D The Sidelines Leader
E The Laissez-faire Leader

E
True or False: Because morale depends on so many factors, it is very difficult to
measure at any given time.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The goal of motivation is to bring about certain behavior in a
worker that is beneficial to the organization and the worker.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A supervisor being aware of details of a worker’s personal life is
quite beneficial.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Maslow’s needs-based theory is based on the assumption that
people’s needs are random.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Herzberg’s Hygiene Factors are motivators.

A True
B False

B
True or False: An example of Herzberg’s Hygiene Factors would be salary and
fringe benefits.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In Herzberg’s Motivation Hygiene Theory, workers can at the
same time be dissatisfied with their jobs but still motivated to perform it well.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A typical Theory X assumption is that the worker is self-motivated
to do the job.

A True
B False

B
True or False: A typical Theory X assumption is that the worker is self-centered
and not concerned about the needs of the agency.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Human behavior is caused, it does not happen a spontaneous
fashion.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A need that is satisfied is a significant motivator of behavior.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Money and other material incentives are significant motivators of
behavior.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Public recognition of good performance is a very strong
motivator of behavior.

A True
B False

A
What must happen for true communication to take place?

A a sender must transmit information
B a receiver must accept and understand the information
C the receiver must indicate that the information was understood
D all of the above
E A and B only
F B and C only

D
True or False: When a sender communicates information to a receiver, it is
incumbent upon the receiver to make sure he or she understands what has
been communicated.

A True
B False

B
True or False: When a sender communicates information to a receiver, it is
incumbent upon the sender to make sure the receiver understands what has
been communicated.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The communication loop is constant and continuous.

A True
B False

A
The Links, Vehicles and Mediums of the communication process are shown
below. What starts the communication process?

A A sender
B A stimulation
C A vehicle
D A direction
E A receiver
F A verbal medium
G A written medium
H A physical signal

B
The Links, Vehicles and Mediums of the communication process are shown
below. What does a sender use to develop the details of the communication?
Correct Answer: B H
Management and Supervision of Law Enforcement Personnel 4th Ed. Schroeder 5.3.B
Copyright Police Career and Promotion Services, LLC. PERSONAL USE ONLY – not for use by any law enforcement or
government agency, corporation or testing company.
A A sender
B A stimulation
C A vehicle
D A direction
E A receiver
F A verbal medium
G A written medium
H An information bin
B H
The Links, Vehicles and Mediums of the communication process are shown
below. What is chosen based on who the receiver will be and the kind of
attitude the sender wishes to project?

A A sender
B A stimulation
C A vehicle
D A direction
E A receiver
F A verbal medium
G A written medium
H An information bin

C
The Links, Vehicles and Mediums of the communication process are shown
below. What is recommended for use if the message is confidential or time
sensitive?

A A sender
B A stimulation
C A vehicle
D A direction
E A receiver
F A verbal medium
G A written medium
H An information bin

F
The Links, Vehicles and Mediums of the communication process are shown
below. What is recommended for use if the message is complicated or lengthy?

A A sender
B A stimulation
C A vehicle
D A direction
E A receiver
F A verbal medium
G A written medium
H An information bin

G
True or False: Prejudice and bias affects both the sender and receiver of a
communication.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Prejudice and bias affect only the receiver of a communication.

A True
B False

B
True or False: The sifting process in communication occurs most often in
downward communication.

A True
B False

B
True or False: The sifting process in communication occurs most often in
upward communication.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Without feedback showing that understanding has taken place
there is no communication.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A tacit order communicated to a subordinate is one that implies
that something should be done.

A True
B False

A
The most frequent error or pitfall in issuing orders is

A Improperly choosing one’s words
B Issuing orders on the run
C Believing that the order has been understood when it has not
D Failing to explain the reason for an order
E Failing to follow up on an order
F Failing to indicate support

C
The statement “the first chance you get” would be an example of what type of
error or pitfall in issuing orders?

A Improperly choosing one’s words
B Issuing orders on the run
C Believing that the order has been understood when it has not
D Failing to explain the reason for an order
E Failing to follow up on an order
F Failing to indicate support
G none of the above

A
“This is what the Chief wants” would be an example of what type of error or
pitfall in issuing orders?

A Improperly choosing one’s words
B Issuing orders on the run
C Believing that the order has been understood when it has not
D Failing to explain the reason for an order
E Failing to follow up on an order
F Failing to indicate support
G none of the above

F
True or False: The intrinsic purpose of an interview is to both give and get
information.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The intrinsic purpose of an interrogation is to both give and get
information.

A True
B False

B
True or False: A Direct Interview is structured and has little flexibility.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A Direct Interview is structured and has a great deal of flexibility.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Only closed-ended questions should be asked of a separating
employee in an exit interview.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Listening during an interview is mostly a passive activity.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Listening during an interview is mostly an active activity.

A True
B False

A
True or False: “Getting rid of dead wood” is a legitimate goal of a performance
evaluation system.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The actual performance of the subordinate must be observed by
the supervisor before any real and accurate assessment of performance can be
made.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The actual performance of the subordinate does not need to be
observed by the supervisor before any real and accurate assessment of
performance can be made.

A True
B False

B
True or False: The evaluation system should provide for an appeal if the ratee
believes he has not been properly rated.

A True
B False

A
The Formal Evaluation System used when a rater compares all employees to
one particularly successful employee is called

A The Model Employee Method
B The Top to Bottom Method
C The Forced Choice Method
D The Forced Choice Diagnostic
E The Critical Incident Method
F The Staff Specialist Method
G none of the above

A
The Formal Evaluation System used when a rater selects statements which he
feels describe the ratee, but in which the rater is not aware of the worth of these
statements, is called

A The Model Employee Method
B The Top to Bottom Method
C The Forced Choice Method
D The Forced Choice Diagnostic
E The Critical Incident Method
F The Staff Specialist Method
G none of the above

D
The Formal Evaluation System used when a rater places all the ratees in rank
order is called

A The Model Employee Method
B The Top to Bottom Method
C The Forced Choice Method
D The Forced Choice Diagnostic
E The Critical Incident Method
F The Staff Specialist Method
G none of the above

B
The Formal Evaluation System which calls for the rater to have a great deal of
contact with the ratee is called

A The Model Employee Method
B The Top to Bottom Method
C The Forced Choice Method
D The Forced Choice Diagnostic
E The Critical Incident Method
F The Staff Specialist Method
G none of the above

E
The Formal Evaluation System in which the rater merely answers yes or no
questions prepared in advance and the evaluation is performed by someone
else in the organization according to the answers is called

A The Model Employee Method
B The Top to Bottom Method
C The Forced Choice Method
D The Forced Choice Diagnostic
E The Critical Incident Method
F The Staff Specialist Method
G none of the above

F
In a formal performance evaluation interview, the rater should start by
establishing that the main purpose of the interview is to try to

A assist the ratee in identifying his strengths
B assist the ratee in identifying his weaknesses
C assist the ratee to improve his performance
D assist the ratee to long-term success in the organization
E all of the above
F A and B only
G C and D only

C
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The most
common error is

A Rater Leniency
B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

A
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The error which
occurs when a rater allows a general impression of the ratee to be created
based on one or two traits instead of basing his evaluation on the entire span of
dimensions is called

A Rater Leniency
B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

B
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The error which
occurs when a rater rates everyone as average is called

A Rater Leniency
B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

C
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The error which
occurs when a rater combines two different traits and a high or low rating for
one trait also results in the same high or low rating for another trait is called

A Rater Leniency
B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

D
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The error which
occurs when a rater measures the ratee based on some personally biased
mental image he has of the position is called

B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

E
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The error which
occurs when a rater remembers a positive or negative incident long ago but
continues to use it as the basis for his evaluation of the ratee is called

A Rater Leniency
B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

F
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by raters. The error which
occurs when supervisors often find that recent events inordinately influence
their judgments about subordinates, especially if they are strongly negative or
positive, is called

A Rater Leniency
B Overshadowing Effect
C Middle Range Tendency
D Association of Traits
E The Image Influence
F Lasting Memory Syndrome
G Error of Recent Events

G
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by law enforcement
agencies. The barrier which contributes the most to poor performance
evaluations is called

A Poor Training of Raters
B Perfunctory Attention
C Solely Punitive
D Overly Complex
E Lack of Performance Standards
F Secret Evaluations
G none of the above

A
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by law enforcement
agencies. The barrier which occurs when supervisors see evaluations as just
another task to get done is called

A Poor Training of Raters
B Perfunctory Attention
C Solely Punitive
D Overly Complex
E Lack of Performance Standards
F Secret Evaluations
G none of the above

B
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by law enforcement
agencies. The barrier which creates an us-vs.-them environment is called

A Poor Training of Raters
B Perfunctory Attention
C Solely Punitive
D Overly Complex
E Lack of Performance Standards
F Secret Evaluations
G none of the above

C
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by law enforcement
agencies. The barrier which causes the raters to view the process as an
unpleasant experience is called

A Poor Training of Raters
B Perfunctory Attention
C Solely Punitive
D Overly Complex
E Lack of Performance Standards
F Secret Evaluations
G none of the above

D
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by law enforcement
agencies. The barrier which results in a “look nice” evaluation system that no
one can validly use and will produce little more that subjective opinions is called

A Poor Training of Raters
B Perfunctory Attention
C Solely Punitive
D Overly Complex
E Lack of Performance Standards
F Secret Evaluations
G none of the above

E
Below are the Barriers to Effective Evaluation created by law enforcement
agencies. The barrier which results when evaluations are performed but the
results are not communicated is called

A Poor Training of Raters
B Perfunctory Attention
C Solely Punitive
D Overly Complex
E Lack of Performance Standards
F Secret Evaluations
G none of the above

F
What is the key concept in dealing with the needs of the agency and the needs
of subordinates and the needs of the community?

A priorities
B balance
C objectivity
D subjectivity
E communication
F information
G none of the above

B
True or False: Maintaining objectivity at all times is nearly impossible.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Eliminating all personal biases is not a practical expectation.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Personnel conflicts are by far the most common problem a
supervisor has to deal with.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A supervisor should intervene when his subordinates are
experiencing certain personal problems.

A True
B False

A
True or False: The most reliable early warning indicator of personal problems
being experienced by a subordinate is a sudden drop in performance.

A True
B False

A
True or False: It serves no purpose to criticize an employee who is in need of
professional counseling.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Taking notes during a formal counseling session is often
productive and necessary for later followup.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Taking notes during a formal counseling session is often
counterproductive and not recommended.

A True
B False

A
True or False: There is a direct relationship between training and safety in the
workplace.

A True
B False

A
There are five steps that go into the planning, assembling and delivering or a
training program. Check all that apply;

A Setting the Budget
B Discovering the Needs
C Finding the Expertise
D Setting the goals
E Developing the Training Curriculum
F Conducting the Program
G Evaluating the Program
H Adjusting for the Next Session

B D E F G
The most common mistake in training made when demonstrating an operation
is to assume that the trainees

A know less than they actually do
B know more than they actually do
C do not need hands-on practice to be successful
D need hands-on training to be successful
E none of the above

B
Trainer paranoia means that a trainer is afraid that

A they will stay in the training position forever if they do too good of a job
B if he does too good a job the trainee will become a challenge to his authority
and position
C he will be sued for improper training
D the trainer feels he is being held accountable for every little thing he teaches
and every mistake a trainee makes
E C and D
F none of the above

B
In management theory the three types of discipline referred to are; (check all
that apply)

A self discipline
B formal discipline
C informal discipline
D overall discipline
E negative discipline
F positive discipline
G intrinsic discipline
H extrinsic discipline

D E F
In management theory, what type of discipline refers to the training and
counseling of subordinates that results in willing and voluntary compliance
with the rules and regulations of an organization?

A self discipline
B formal discipline
C informal discipline
D overall discipline
E negative discipline
F positive discipline
G intrinsic discipline
H extrinsic discipline

F
In management theory, what type of discipline should a supervisor adhere to so
as to avoid the message “Don’t do as I do, do as I say”?

A self discipline
B formal discipline
C informal discipline
D overall discipline
E negative discipline
F positive discipline
G intrinsic discipline
H extrinsic discipline

A
In management theory, in what type of discipline is it extremely important for
supervisors to document its use?

A self discipline
B formal discipline
C informal discipline
D overall discipline
E negative discipline
F positive discipline
G intrinsic discipline
H extrinsic discipline

E
In management theory, what type of discipline refers to the combined results of
the administration of positive and negative discipline?

A self discipline
B formal discipline
C informal discipline
D total discipline
E overall discipline
F comprehensive discipline
G intrinsic discipline
H extrinsic discipline

E
True or False: Deterrence of misbehavior is dependent upon both the certainty
and swiftness of punishment

A True
B False

A
True or False: Deterrence of misbehavior is dependent upon the certainty of but
not the swiftness of punishment
Correct Answer: B

A True
B False

B
True or False: Deterrence of misbehavior is always dependent upon the severity
of punishment.

A True
B False

B
True or False: It is imperative that punishment fit the individual as well as the
offense.

A True
B False

A
True or False: For the sake of fairness and objectivity, it is imperative that
punishment fit the offense and not the individual.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Acting on wrongdoing is discretionary for a supervisor.

A True
B False

B
The hallmark of a fair and equitable disciplinary system is

A positive discipline
B the appeals process
C training of supervisors
D consistency
E all of the above

D
When positive discipline is called for, it is best to handle the matter

A formally
B in writing
C informally
D quickly
E none of the above

C
The eight obstacles to effective administration of discipline are shown below.
When a supervisor immediately resorts to threats of negative discipline when
things go wrong, this obstacle is called

A Inappropriate Transfer of Personnel
B Ignoring Anonymous Information
C Being Vengeful
D Public Disciplining
E Inadequate Case Preparation
F Acting with Incomplete Information
G Being Overly Lenient
H Being Overly Reliant on the Fear of Negative Discipline

H
The eight obstacles to effective administration of discipline are shown below.
When a supervisor feels that popularity is the key to their success, the
disciplinary administration mistake they will make is called

A Inappropriate Transfer of Personnel
B Ignoring Anonymous Information
C Being Vengeful
D Public Disciplining
E Inadequate Case Preparation
F Acting with Incomplete Information
G Being Overly Lenient
H Being Overly Reliant on the Fear of Negative Discipline

G
The eight obstacles to effective administration of discipline are shown below.
When a supervisor feels that he has enough information to sustain an
allegation, he is avoiding the disciplinary mistake called

A Inappropriate Transfer of Personnel
B Ignoring Anonymous Information
C Being Vengeful
D Public Disciplining
E Inadequate Case Preparation
F Acting with Incomplete Information
G Being Overly Lenient
H Being Overly Reliant on the Fear of Negative Discipline

F
The eight obstacles to effective administration of discipline are shown below.
When a supervisor relies on speculation without confirming facts before a
disciplinary hearing, this mistake is called

A Inappropriate Transfer of Personnel
B Ignoring Anonymous Information
C Being Vengeful
D Public Disciplining
E Inadequate Case Preparation
F Acting with Incomplete Information
G Being Overly Lenient
H Being Overly Reliant on the Fear of Negative Discipline

E
The eight obstacles to effective administration of discipline are shown below.
When a supervisor allows private bias to affect the way he treats his
subordinates, this mistake is called

A Inappropriate Transfer of Personnel
B Ignoring Anonymous Information
C Being Vengeful
D Public Disciplining
E Inadequate Case Preparation
F Acting with Incomplete Information
G Being Overly Lenient
H Being Overly Reliant on the Fear of Negative Discipline

C
The eight obstacles to effective administration of discipline are shown below.
When a supervisor does not understand that assignments should be based on
ability and not inability, this mistake is called

A Inappropriate Transfer of Personnel
B Ignoring Anonymous Information
C Being Vengeful
D Public Disciplining
E Inadequate Case Preparation
F Acting with Incomplete Information
G Being Overly Lenient
H Being Overly Reliant on the Fear of Negative Discipline

A
True or False: Supervisors should get involved in all the complaints of their
subordinates.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Supervisors should not get involved in all the complaints of their
subordinates.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Work related complaints should be fully verbalized to merit
supervisory intervention.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Work related complaints do not need to be fully verbalized to
merit supervisory intervention.

A True
B False

A
The two broad categories of employee complaints are called ______________
and ______________.

A sensory / non-sensory
B internal / external
C intrinsic / extrinsic
D self-based / organizational-based
E none of the above

A
True or False: It is imperative that each and every anonymous complaint against
an employee be investigated

A True
B False

A
The most common weakness of an employee complaint system is

A being overly lenient
B being overly harsh
C inadequately investigating minor complaints
D a failure to provide feedback on the dispositions of lodged complaints
E a failure to maintain confidentiality during investigations
F none of the above

D
True or False: All work-related complaints, including grievances, should be
documented in writing by the supervisor who took the complaint.

A True
B False

A
True or False: A complaint by a citizen against an officer who was properly
carrying out a law or policy that the citizen does not agree with, and where no
other allegation of misconduct is made, should not be classified as a
“personnel complaint.”

A True
B False

A
True or False: No member of any agency should have the authority to quash or
‘informally handle” complaints.

A True
B False

A
The cardinal rule of handling personnel complaints is that

A all complaints must be written
B all complaints must be clear and specific
C all complaints must be investigated as to their merit
D all complaints must be taken and investigated by the immediate supervisor
named in the complaint
E none of the above

C
Some of the most serious and infamous cases of police misconduct have been
initiated by

A complaints from fellow officers
B complaints from immediate supervisors
C complaints from top managers
D complaints from reliable and noteworthy citizens
E complaints from anonymous sources
F all of the above

E
An officer cannot be punished for non-criminal actions unless it can be
established that such actions

A were job related
B impaired the officer’s job efficiency
C seriously damaged the operational effectiveness of the agency
D were of a nature as to adversely affect the morale and efficiency of the
department
E have a tendency to destroy public respect for and confidence in the police
department
F all of the above
G A and B and C only
H C and D and E only

F
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, in some
situations it might be proper and advantageous to interview witnesses in a
group.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, if a supervisor
believes a complainant to be intoxicated, taking the complaint should be
postponed until the complainant is sober.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, if a supervisor
believes a complainant to be intoxicated, this should not be noted in the
complaint report so as not to infer any bias against the complainant.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, if a supervisor
believes a complainant to be intoxicated, this should be noted in the complaint
report and a copy of the report given to the complainant.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, prior to
questioning the employee, the accused officer should be informed of the
identity of all persons present and the reasons why they are present.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, prior to
questioning, the accused officer should be told the exact nature of the
accusations.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In investigating complaints against employees, “off the record”
questions should not be used.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Supervisors are immune from being named in sexual harassment
suits as long as they did not harass anyone.

A True
B False

B
True or False: It is a mistake to bring a complainant and an accused officer
together in a face-to-face confrontation to try to determine the truth in a citizen
complaint.

A True
B False

A
True or False: It is a valid tool to bring a complainant and an accused officer
together in a face-to-face confrontation to try to determine the truth in a citizen
complaint.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In cases of citizen complaints of minor infractions of discourtesy
by an officer, if the officer is agreeable and admits the discourtesy the matter
can be settled solely with an apology from the officer to the complainant.

A True
B False

B
Identify the three main themes of Community and Problem-oriented Policing
below by checking those three which apply;

A increases effectiveness by attacking underlying problems
B decreases the police budget by making for more effective use of crime fighting
resources and personnel
C relies on the expertise and creativity of supervisors and mid-managers to study
problems and find alternate solutions
D creates a closer involvement with the public to make sure that the police are
addressing the needs of citizens
E relies on the expertise and creativity of line officers to study problems and find
alternate solutions
F increases the focus on minor “order maintenance” crimes and issues such as
disturbances and drunkenness
G increases use of non-motorized patrol such as foot, bicycle etc.
H decreases specialization and flattens the rank structure of the organization.

A D E
In summary, Compstat in NYPD was guided by

A partnership, problem solving and accountability
B prevention, problem solving and computerization
C technology, problem solving and prevention
D partnership, problem solving and prevention
E none of the above

D
The recommended approach to problem solving involves the six steps listed
below. The step which is the most important step in problem solving is

A Evaluating the solution
B Implementing the solution
C Planning the solution
D Identification of the problem
E Analysis of the problem
F none of the above

D
The recommended approach to problem solving involves the six steps listed
below. The step which is not a knee-jerk, rapid-fire operation but take’s a
supervisor’s patience, effort and investigative skills is called

A Evaluating the solution
B Implementing the solution
C Planning the solution
D Identification of the problem
E Analysis of the problem
F none of the above

E
The recommended approach to problem solving involves the six steps listed
below. The step which involves setting goals and objectives, identifying
available help and the actions to be taken is called

A Evaluating the solution
B Implementing the solution
C Planning the solution
D Identification of the problem
E Analysis of the problem
F none of the above

C
The recommended approach to problem solving involves the six steps listed
below. The step which involves the actions of coordination, feedback and
documentation is called

A Evaluating the solution
B Implementing the solution
C Planning the solution
D Identification of the problem
E Analysis of the problem
F none of the above

B
The recommended approach to problem solving involves the six steps listed
below. The step which is the final step of the problem-solving process is called

A Evaluating the solution
B Implementing the solution
C Planning the solution
D Identification of the problem
E Analysis of the problem
F none of the above

A
Should problem solving be proactive, reactive or both?

A proactive
B reactive
C both

C
The SARA model of problem solving stands for

A Scanning, Alternatives, Researching, Assessing
B Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assignment
C Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment
D Scanning, Activity, Rescue, Assignment
E none of the above

C
True or False: In general, the thicker and bigger the book on operational
guidelines is, the more successful will be the operation.

A True
B False

B
True or False: Absence a belief that victims are in danger, it is always better to
confront criminals who are unaware of police presence after they have
completed their criminal act and are in the act of escaping or are otherwise not
in the presence of their victims.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In situations where it is likely that the use of deadly force might
be employed, the police should clear the area of people. Police lines should be
established at least 1000 feet from the scene of the anticipated confrontation.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Car stops must be viewed by officers as potential crisis
situations.

A True
B False

A
There are generally four factors that are common to many shooting homicides
of police officers. Check the four below factors that apply;

A shootings usually occur in dark or dimly lit areas
B shootings usually occur when the shooter is from 20 – 25 feet away from the
officer
C they occur when there is very little warning, usually only a few seconds
D the shooters are mostly young males acting alone
E shootings often involve multiple opponents
F shootings usually occur when the shooter is less than 10 feet away from the
officer
G shootings mostly occur in daylight or twilight
H shootings occur most often when an officer is alone, without backup

A C E F
The location of a field command post should generally be; (check all that apply)

A easy to find
B safely outside of any danger zone
C broadcast to the media so they do not attempt to enter the danger zone
D near phone lines
E near electrical power
F in a well lit area
G in an area where personnel and equipment can be assembled.
H away from tall buildings and natural hazards

A B D E G
True or False: In labor disputes, a supervisor should properly warn both sides
that professional agitators will not be tolerated.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In labor disputes, a supervisor should properly warn both sides
that the use of the streets and sidewalks by persons not involved in the strike
will not be interfered with.

A True
B False

A
True or False: There should be no requirement that a person be missing for a
certain period of time before he can be considered missing.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In a vehicle pursuit the supervisor should monitor the radio and
limit the use of the radio by units other than the main and backup vehicles.

A True
B False

A
In a hostage or barricaded persons situation, the easiest type of captor for the
police to deal with is usually the

A professional criminal who has had his escape blocked
B the emotionally disturbed person
C the terrorist
D none of the above

A
In a bomb threat situation, the decision whether to evacuate a private premises
while a search is conducted should be made by the

A first officer on the scene
B officer on the scene with the most information
C first supervisor on the scene
D on-duty watch commander
E person in charge of the premises
F none of the above

E
In the convergence method of searching an outdoor area, the supervisor should
direct

A teams to start at the center and search outward
B teams to start at the outward perimeter and search inward
C some teams to search inward, and some to search outward
D none of the above

B
True or False: There is very little the police can do to reduce or eliminate a
person’s desire to engage in criminal activity.

A True
B False

A
A police agency’s success in dealing with a diverse community starts with

A community policing
B the recruitment and selection process
C fair and impartial investigation of citizen complaints
D open and honest media relations policy
E all of the above

B
Questionable cases of a probationary employee’s fitness for police duty should
be dealt with by

A extra classroom and field training
B extension of probationary period
C discipline, suspension and remediation
D termination
E none of the above

D
The Cardinal Rule of police leadership is

A Lead by example
B Not being afraid of failure
C Accept responsibility for the mistakes of subordinates
D all of the above
E none of the above

A
The first step in winning the respect of subordinates is to

A Set a good example
B Showing you are not afraid of failure
C Showing you are willing to accept responsibility for your mistakes and the
mistakes of subordinates
D all of the above
E none of the above

A
For a police supervisor, the foundation for empathy lies in

A knowledge
B understanding
C compassion
D morals
E values
F all of the above

B
Objective police supervisory actions and decisions are ones that are based on

A intuition
B insight
C compassion
D facts
E values
F all of the above

D
True or False: Building a minority worker’s confidence obligates supervisors to
overlook “mistakes of the head.”

A True
B False

B
True or False: It is a fundamental responsibility of first line supervisors to
accept all employee grievances.

A True
B False

A
True or False: First line supervisors should accept employee grievances only
when they have obvious merit and are supported by facts, not conjecture.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In certain cultures expressions of rage are culturally acceptable
and not an automatic harbinger that violence will follow.

A True
B False

A
True or False: In communicating with persons with another language and
culture, speaking slowly and emphasizing your enunciation is often considered
rude and mockery.

A True
B False

B
True or False: In communicating with persons with another language and
culture, trying to talk in the style of the other person’s culture is often
considered rude and mockery.

A True
B False

A
True or False: Many use of force considerations by police are not covered by
law.

A True
B False

A
The cardinal rule of any use of force policy must be that

A Excessive force by officers will never be tolerated
B Officers must always use the least amount of force necessary
C Officers will be placed on paid leave pending an investigation all times when a
use of force results in serious injury or death
D Officers will be thoroughly trained in all use of force available to them
E all of the above
F A and B only
G C and D only

F
All law enforcement agencies should have a rule that mandates that, when no
supervisor is present at the scene of an incident that involves the use of force,

A no arrest should be made unless absolutely necessary until a supervisor
arrives on scene
B the senior member present at the scene will direct and coordinate agency
operations pending the arrival of a supervisor
C no force should be used by any officer except in defense of self or others or to
prevent the escape of the suspect
D an officer shall immediately request that a supervisor report to the scene
E none of the above

B
True or False: Courts will not accept “gut” feelings or “hunches” as a basis for
probable cause.

A True
B False

A
The two types of police promotion systems in use throughout the country are
called

A Internally controlled and externally controlled
B New school and old school
C Performance-based and knowledge-based
D Fact-based and scenario-based
E Generic and Technical
F none of the above

A
In police promotion, technical skills refer to knowledge and/or abilities that are

A peculiar to a particular jurisdiction
B general in nature, they apply to any law enforcement agency
C computer, firearm or equipment based
D fact-based or scenario-based
E none of the above

A
In police promotion, generic skills refer to knowledge and/or abilities that are

A peculiar to a particular jurisdiction
B general in nature, they apply to any law enforcement agency
C computer, firearm or equipment based
D fact-based or scenario-based
E none of the above

B
The cardinal rule in law enforcement test development is that a test

A must not be so hard that no one or very few can pass it
B must measure only the knowledge and/or abilities that are essential for
successful performance in the position to be filled by the results of that test
C must not have adverse impact against women or minorities
D must be fact-based and not opinion-based; too much theory, conjecture and
hypothesis will cause a test to be ruled invalid
E all of the above

B
The two basic methods of establishing test validity are called

A content validity and criterion-related validity
B content validity and expert validity
C expert validity and practical validity
D subjective validity and objective validity
E none of the above

A
It is recommended that promotion tests be given at least every

A year
B two years
C three years
D four years
E none of the above

B

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