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MGMT Chapter 9

When starting a new job, it is best to avoid giving or getting feedback during the first 60 days so that everyone has an opportunity to get an accurate impression.
False

(During the first 60 days, you should make it easy for others to give you feedback. Ask your boss, coworkers, and subordinates to give you feedback about how you’re doing. Be prepared to take unpleasant news gracefully. At the end of 30 days, have a “How am I doing?” meeting with your boss)

Google’s treatment of its employees is indicative of its belief that its biggest competitive advantage lies in its human resources
True
Personnel management consists of the activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce
False

( Human resource management consists of the activities mangers perform to plan for, develop, attract and retain an effective workforce)

The purpose of the strategic human resource management process is to get optimal work performance to help realize the company’s mission and goals
True
Recruiting and selecting people is the first step in the strategic human resource process
False

(Recruiting and selecting people comes after steps to formulate strategic plans and planning human resources needed.)

Human capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions.
True
Collective capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships
False

(Social capital is the economoic or productive potential of strong, trusting and cooperative relationships)

Understanding current employee needs and predicting future ones are the two parts of strategic human resources recruiting
True

(trategic human resource planning consists of developing a systematic, comprehensive strategy for (a) understanding current employee needs and (b) predicting future employee needs.)

Interviews with people who currently hold a job is part of a job analysis for that position
True
A job description describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform the job successfully
False

( A job specification describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform a job successfully)

The process of writing job analyses, descriptions, and specifications often helps you to hire people who are overqualified
False

(The process of writing job analyses, descriptions, and specifications can help you avoid hiring people who are overqualified (and presumably more expensive) or underqualified (and thus not as productive) for a particular job)

A human resource inventory organizes information for assessing which of your current employees are promotable and what kind of training your organization might have to do.
True
Reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics are a good source of information to assess internal candidates for promotion
False

(In looking outside for recruiting, you need to consider the availability of talent in your industry’s
and geographical area’s labor pool, the training of people graduating from various schools, and such factors as what kind of people are moving into your area. The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S. Census Bureau issue reports on such matters)

Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between top management and shareholders about disputes over compensation and benefits
False

(Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between management and employees about disputes over compensation, benefits, working conditions, and job security)

The Wagner Act allows the President of the United States to prevent or end a strike that threatens national security.
False

(the Taft-Hartley act)

Products from child labor were banned under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
True
The 2010 health care reform legislation requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance
True
The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide 12 weeks of paid leave for medical and family reasons like childbirth or adoption
False

(unpaid leave)

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all for-profit companies.
False
Antidiscrimination laws do not require employers to extend preferential treatment because of race, color, or religion
True
Programs that attempt to make up for past discrimination in employment are known as affirmative action programs
True
One type of gender discrimination is known as quid pro quo
False

(In the quid pro quo type of sexual harassment (rather than discrimination), the person to whom the unwanted sexual attention is directed is put in the position of jeopardizing being hired for a job or obtaining job benefits or opportunities unless he or she implicitly or explicitly acquiesces)

Karen is a construction manager for the building of a large parking structure downtown. One day a group of steel workers whistled at her as she climbed a ladder. The men’s actions created a hostile work environment
True
External recruitment is the process of locating and attracting qualified applications for jobs open in the organization
False

(Recruiting is the process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization. Recruiting is of two types: internal and external)

Job posting is the primary method of recruiting internally
True

(Most vacant positions in organizations are filled through internal recruitment, mainly through job posting, placing information about job vacancies and qualifications on bulletin boards, in newsletters, and on the organization’s intranet)

LinkedIn, a business-oriented social network, is an effective way to do internal recruiting
False

(externally)

In general, the most effective sources of good external candidates are employee referrals
True
A job specification gives a candidate a picture of both positive and negative features of the job and the organization before he or she is hired
False

(A realistic job preview gives a candidate a picture of both positive and negative features of the job and the organization before he or she is hired. People with realistic expectations tend to quit less frequently and be more satisfied than those with unrealistic expectations)

There are fewer risks associated with external recruiting than with internal since the pool of potential candidates is much larger.
False

(There are fewer risks with internal recruiting. Internal candidates are already known and are familiar with the organization )

The screening of job applicants in order to hire the best candidate is known as the preference process
False

(the selection process)

References are an effective way to obtain reliable information about a prospective job candidate
False

(References are a problem. Many employers don’t give honest assessments of former employees,
for two reasons: (1) They fear that if they say anything negative, they can be sued by the former employee. (2) They fear that if they say anything positive and the job candidate doesn’t pan out, they can be sued by the new employer)

The most commonly used employee-selection technique is interviewing
True
Unstructured interviews are more accurate than structured interviews in assessing an applicant’s job- related personality traits
True
The comparative interview involves asking each applicant the same questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers
False

(the structured interview involves asking each applicant the same questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers)

In the situational interview a typical question might be “What is the best idea you ever sold to someone?
False

(In the behavioral-description interview, the interviewer explores what applicants have actually done in the past. Example: “What was the best idea you ever sold to a supervisor, teacher, peer, or subordinate)

In a behavioral-description interview, the interviewer explores what applicants have actually done in the past
True
Application forms, interviews, and educational requirements are now legally considered employment tests
True
An assessment center is typically used to assess physical capabilities of skilled labor candidates
False
Managers should use personality tests in selecting new employees, because they are the most direct measure of how well the employee will perform in the job.
False
A test is reliable if it measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias
False

(Reliability is the degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently and validity means the test measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias.)

An orientation helps a newcomer fit smoothly into the job and the organization
True
Defining the organization’s mission and operations should be considered an integral part of employee orientation
True
The first step in the training process is setting objectives for what the training should achieve
False

(assessment of what training is needed is the first step)

For HR professionals, employee training is synonymous with development.
False

(HR professionals distinguish between training and development; training is upgrading the skills of technical and operational employees and development is upgrading the skills of professionals and managers)

Computer-assisted instruction is an example of on-the-job training
False

(Lots of off-the-job training consists of computer-assisted instruction (CAI), in which computers are used to provide additional help or to reduce instructional time)

When doing a performance appraisal the manager will provide the subordinate with feedback
True

(performance appraisals’ consist of assessing an employee’s performance and providing him or her with feedback)

Performance management is a method used to improve profitability through a rapid downsizing
False

(Performance management is the continuous cycle of improving job performance through goal setting, feedback and coaching, and rewards and positive reinforcement)

A company that evaluates its truckers based on miles of freight hauled is using objective appraisals
True
Objective appraisals are harder to challenge legally than subjective appraisals.
True
Trait appraisals are of questionable validity because an evaluator’s personal biases can affect ratings
True
A manager employing a BARS is using a trait appraisal
False

(Behavioral appraisals measure specific, observable aspects of performance like being on time for work, although making the evaluation is still somewhat subjective. An example is the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS), which rates employee gradations in performance according to scales of specific behaviors)

The type of appraisal in which employees are evaluated not only by their managerial superiors but also by peers and subordinates is called the 180-degree assessment
False

(360 degree assessment)

The forced ranking performance review system may have negative effects on morale, productivity, and loyalty
True
When it comes to performance appraisal feedback, the longer the appraisal document, the better.
False

(The typical appraisal is often three pages long and filled with vague, uncommunicative language and is useless to ensure that improvement happens. Lawrence Bossidy, former AlliedSignal CEO, recommends an appraisal take up half a page and cover just three topics: what the boss likes about your performance, what you can improve, and how you and your boss are going to make sure that improvement happens)

Appraisals that are conducted on an unscheduled basis and consist of less rigorous indications of employee performance are known as unofficial appraisals.
False

(informal appraisals)

The three parts of compensation are wages, incentives, and benefits.
True
One of the factors that determines base pay is what competitors are paying
True
Stock options are considered a benefit, as part of a compensation package
False

(incentive)

Benefits are additional nonmonetary forms of compensation designed to enrich the lives of all employees in the organization, which are paid all or in part by the organization
True
In the United States, benefits account for only about 10% of total employment compensation
False
If managers regularly communicate with employees about the incentive pay plan, the organization’s plan is more likely to meet its goals
True
One of the keys to a successful incentive-pay plan is its uniformity.
False

(Five keys to a successful incentive-pay plan are the following, according to consultant Ken Abosch: simplicity, clear goals, realistic goals, consistency with present goals, and regular communication)

A transfer can be used to retain an employee’s interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge
True

(
Employees might be transferred for four principal reasons: (1) to solve organizational problems by using their skills at another location; (2) to broaden their experience in being assigned to a different position; (3) to retain their interest and motivation by being presented with a new challenge; or (4) to solve some employee problems, such as personal differences with their bosses)

An employee cannot be dismissed permanently “for cause” for absenteeism.
False
The great majority of union workers are in the private sector; fewer than 20% of union workers have government jobs
False
The “closed shop,” in which an employer may hire for a job only workers who are already in the union, is illegal in the United States
True
An arbitrator makes a decision that the parties have agreed will be binding on them
True
Which of the following is not a recommended way to stand out in a new job?
A. Come in early and stay late to observe others.
B. Underpromise.
C. Be aware of the power of first impressions.
D. Make it easy for others to give you feedback.
E. Overdeliver.
Underpromise (B)
The activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce are called
A. personnel development.
B. contingency planning.
C. human resource management.
D. job analysis.
E. performance appraisal
human resource management (C)
The strategic human resource management process includes which of these?
A. Plan financial resources needed.
B. Identify social capital.
C. Orient, train, and develop.
D. Investigate competitive job positions. E. Correct underperformance
Orient, train and develop (C)
What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process? A. Plan future human resources needs.
B. Perform appraisals of people.
C. Assess success of recruitment process.
D. Orient, train, and develop people. E. Recruit and select people
Perform appraisals of people (B)
The economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions is called A. human capital.
B. labor capital.
C. social capital.
D. potential capital.
E. productivity capital.
human capital (A)
Among aspects of ________ are goodwill, mutual respect, cooperation, and teamwork.
A. relational capital
B. social capital
C. personal capital
D. productivity capital
E. human capital
social capital (B)
The purpose of the strategic human resource process is to
A. maintain a stable workforce for the minimum expense.
B. inform the grand strategy.
C. formulate human resource-sensitive strategic plans.
D. find the human resources needed in a timely fashion.
E. get optimal work performance to help realize company’s mission and vision
get optimal work performance to help realize the company’s mission and vision (E)
A specialist at UPS that rides with couriers to learn about delivery time measurements and potential service problems is conducting a job
A. posting.
B. specification.
C. analysis.
D. description.
E. rotation.
analysis (C)
Susan had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly 20 years, so when she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed. Before she left, Ben sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions. Ben was performing a
A. behavioral-description interview.
B. performance appraisal.
C. informal appraisal.
D. job analysis.
E. job rotation.
job analysis (D)
A ______ summarizes what the holder of the job does and how and why he or she does it. A. job specification
B. realistic job preview
C. job description
D. job analysis
E. performance appraisal
job description (C)
In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future, human resource managers should
A. focus efforts on replacing those who retire or resign.
B. assume that the organization will not change much.
C assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the organization’s
. jobs,so planning here must be deferred.
D. understand the organization’s vision and strategy and hire to support them. E. hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth.
understand the organization’s vision and strategy and hire to support them (D)
A report listing your organization’s employees by name, education, training, languages, and other important information is called a(n)
A. human resource inventory.
B. labor register.
C. skills record.
D. job analysis.
E. employee database.
human resource inventory (A)
Gwen, an HR manager, was using reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S. Census Bureau for information about her industry’s labor pool in her geographic area. Gwen is planning to
A. perform a job analysis.
B. recruit from inside the organization.
C. analyze human capital.
D. develop an affirmative action program.
E. recruit from outside the organization.
recruit from outside the organization (E)
Passed in 1935, the ______ Act resulted in the National Labor Relations Board.
A. Wagner
B. Social Security
C. Taft-Hartley
D. Occupational Safety and Health
E. Civil Rights
Wagner (A)
Which piece of legislation first established the U.S. federal minimum wage? A. Wagner Act
B. Social Security Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act
E. Civil Rights Act
Fair Labor Standards Act (C)
The ______ Act established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. A. Equal Pay
B. Wagner
C. Social Security
D. Occupational Safety and Health
E. Civil Rights
Civil Rights (E)
Which of the following protects employees who raise accusations of fraud to a federal agency?
A. Privacy Act
B. Civil Rights Act
C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
E. Polygraph Protection Act
Sarbanes-Oxley Act (D)
The law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination is the A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
B. Social Security Act
C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act
Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
Which of the following requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance?

A. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
B. Occupational Safety and Health Act
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Social Security Act
E. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (E)
A California software firm was growing rapidly and hiring frequently, but primarily focused on campus recruiting at Berkeley and Stanford. When one older candidate did not get an interview after a phone screening, he went to the company’s website and noted all of the young people in charge. He filed a discrimination lawsuit based on which law?
A. Civil Rights Act
B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
C. Americans with Disabilities Act
D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Age discrimination in Employment Act (B)
Oscar has a degenerative eye disease that is causing him to gradually lose his eyesight. When Oscar asked his employer to purchase a low vision computer for his use at work, he was instead let go. This violates provisions of the
A. Civil Rights Act, Title VII.
B. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.
C. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA).
D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
E. Privacy Act.
Americans with Disabilities Act (D)
______ occurs when people are hired or promoted, or denied hiring or promotion, for reasons not relevant to the job.
A. Affirmative action
B. Discrimination
C. A hiring quota
D. Quid pro quo
E. A hostile work environment
Discrimination (B)
After being referred by a friend, Hasina attended a job interview. She didn’t feel it went well but was surprised when her friend told her the boss didn’t like that she had worn her hijab, a traditional headscarf. The boss told a coworker after the interview, “Our customers prefer working with Christians.” This is an example of
A. affirmative action.
B. quid pro quo.
C. discrimination.
D. hostile work environment. E. favoritism.
discrimination (C)
Which type of workplace discrimination occurs when an organization uses an employment practice that results in unfavorable outcomes to a protected class?
A. Adverse impact
B. Reverse discrimination
C. Harassment
D. Unequal application E. Disparate treatment
Adverse impact (A)
If a firm gives all international assignments to people without disabilities, assuming they will therefore not require special accommodations, which type of workplace discrimination has occurred?
A. Adverse impact
B. Harassment
C. Reverse discrimination
D. Disparate treatment
E. Inequality
Disparate treatment (D)
Top managers at Kendrick Construction want to increase the percentages of minorities and women in its ranks. The company began an active recruitment program with a local university and a special career development program. Kendrick has started a(n) ______ plan.
A. reverse discrimination
B. equality
C. civil rights
D. preferential treatment
E. affirmative action
affirmative action (E)
Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
A. A hostile work environment is characterized by a tangible economic harm.
B. The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not know about the
situation.
C.A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his or her job is
facing a quid pro quo.
D. Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment.
E. Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.
A person who feels her or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his or her job is facing a quid pro quo.
Melissa worked in a distribution warehouse for a power tool company. Throughout the building, there were posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature, and they made Melissa very uncomfortable. This is
A. a quid pro quo harassment.
B. not of legal concern because none of the offensive materials are directed at Lauren.
C. sexual discrimination.
D. not of legal concern because Lauren is not suffering any economic injury.
E. a hostile work environment.
a hostile work environment (E)
The process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization is called A. enlisting.
B. selection. C. hiring.
D. recruiting. E. job posting.
recruiting (D)
Placing information about job vacancies and qualifications in places where employees can see them such as on bulletin boards or the company’s intranet is called
A. job analysis.
B. realistic job previewing.
C. position advertising. D. recruiting.
E. job posting.
job posting (E)
Which of the following external recruiting methods works best?
A. Private employment agencies
B. Employee referrals
C. Newspaper ads
D. College recruiters
E. Unions
Employee referrals (B)
Which of the following is true of external recruiting, compared to internal recruiting?
A. It encourages greater employee loyalty.
B. The process is cheaper.
C. The pool of talent is more limited.
D. It creates the need for multiple recruitments.
E. The process takes longer.
The process takes longer (E)
When Jake became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large medical supply company, the director of the department scheduled a special meeting with him. There, the two talked about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position, as well as the great compensation and multiple perks. Jake appreciated that the director took time to conduct a(n)
A. behavioral-description interview.
B. realistic job preview.
C. unstructured interview.
D. situational interview.
E. performance appraisal.
realistic job preview (B)
Which of the following statements about background information is false? A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees. B. The most prevalent distortion in a résumé is lying about education.
C. Many employers don’t give honest assessments of former employees.
D. People sometimes attempt to cover gaps in employment history.
E. People lie about their ages in their application information.
Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees (A)
The type of interview that is most likely to cause managers problems because of its potential for bias and questionable legality is the
A. realistic job preview.
B. unstructured interview.
C. performance interview.
D. situational interview.
E. behavioral description interview.
unstructured interview (B)
In an interview Allison asked Jeff to tell her about a time when he was able to overcome some sort of adversity. Allison is conducting a(n)
A. realistic job preview.
B. performance interview.
C. situational interview.
D. behavioral description interview. E. unstructured interview.
behavioral description interview (D)
Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews?
A. Ask about the candidate’s family to show personal interest.
B. The résumé should be used for selection of interview candidates only; ignore it thereafter.
C. Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company and its
culture.
D. Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate.
E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate’s qualifications.
After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidates qualifications (E)
Which of the following is not considered, legally, to be an employment test?
A. Personality tests
B. Interviews
C. Job analyses
D. Application forms
E. Educational requirements
Job analyses (C)
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is considered a(n) ______ test.
A. ability
B. character
C. performance
D. personality
E. reliability
personality (D)
When Cara interviewed for a position as an entry-level structural engineer, she was asked to solve several engineering problems by hand. This is an example of a(n)
A. ability test.
B. performance test.
C. aptitude test.
D. personality test. E. capability test.
performance test (B)
The degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently is known as its A. legality.
B. reliability.
C. validity.
D. significance. E. dependability.
reliability (B)
______ refers to educating ______ employees in skills needed to do their jobs in the future. A. Training; technical and operational
B. Development; technical and operational
C. Training; managerial and professional
D. Development; managerial and professional E. Orientation; seasoned
Development; professional and managerial
Emilio, an HR manager, had a meeting with the director of operations to determine if the new training program appears to be effective in improving productivity on the shop floor. Tracy is performing which step of the training process?
A. Assessment
B. Objectives
C. Selection
D. Implementation
E. Evaluation
Evaluation (E)
Which of the following training and development methods is most appropriate when people just need to learn facts such as work rules or legal matters?
A. Videotapes
B. Role-plays
C. Practice work
D. Discussion
E. Coaching
Videotapes (A)
Keri, an HR manager, is designing a training class for those working on the new cross-functional teams within her company. This class that is aimed at improving group decision making. What method of delivery should she choose?
A. Lectures
B. Role-playing
C. Workbooks
D. Videotapes
E. Computer-aided training
Role playing (B)
Which of the following is an on-the-job training method?
A. Role-playing
B. Videotapes
C. Job rotation
D. Classroom programs
E. Computer-assisted instruction
Job rotation (C)
Which of the following is a form of off-the-job training?
A. Planned work activities
B. Classroom instruction
C. Training positions
D. Job rotation
E. Coaching
Classroom instruction (B)
Performance appraisal consists of
A. managerial and peer feedback.
B. setting standards and monitoring performance.
C. assessing performance and providing feedback.
D. motivating and counseling.
E. motivating and monitoring performance.
assessing performance and providing feedback (C)
MBO is consistent with a(n) ______ performance appraisal.
A. subordinate
B. trait
C. BARS
D. objective
E. behavioral
objective (D)
Amy is a sales manager and she is conducting performance appraisals for her team members. To do so, she tracks each person’s sales calls and revenues on a quarterly basis. Amy is using a(n) ______ system of appraisal.
A. objective
B. behavioral C. trait
D. informal E. 360-degree
objective (A0
The type of appraisal that is most subject to validity problems due to evaluator bias is the ______ appraisal.
A. behavioral
B. 360-degree feedback
C. objective
D. results
E. trait
trait (E)
The type of performance appraisal that consists of ratings of subjective attributes like attitude or leadership is a(n) ______ appraisal.
A. objective
B. trait
C. behavioral D. self
E. 360-degree
trait (B)
The type of performance appraisal that judges specific, observable aspects of performance like being on time for work is a(n) ______ appraisal
A. results
B. objective
C. trait
D. behavioral E. MBO
behavioral (D)
Lottie is conducting a performance appraisal for Matt, one of her subordinates. The company’s performance appraisal form asks her to rate Matt’s performance on various items like “Turns in reports on time with minimal errors” on a scale from 1 to 5. Lottie’s company has a(n) ______ appraisal system.
A. results
B. objective
C. trait
D. BARS
E. MBO
BARS
A feedback technique in which an employee is appraised by her boss, peers, subordinates, and possibly clients is called a(n)
A. MBO appraisal.
B. reciprocal appraisal.
C. BARS appraisal.
D. 360-degree appraisal. E. results appraisal.
360 degree appraisal (D)
Using 360-degree feedback appraisals to trigger pay and personnel decisions puts ______ at risk.
A. trust
B. change
C. feedback
D. performance
E. development
trust (A)
A performance review system in which all employees within a business unit are ranked against one another is known as a
A. standard curve.
B. normal distribution.
C. performance positioning.
D. forced ranking.
E. unit grading.
forced ranking (D)
Carmela was surprised to learn that at her company not everyone would receive a bonus this year. Instead, management planned to rank all of the employees in her division and award bonuses only to the top 20%. This is an example of a ______ performance review system.
A. standard curve.
B. normal distribution.
C. functional positioning.
D. forced ranking.
E. unit grading.
forced ranking (D)
The point of the performance appraisal is to
A. provide a paper trail of manager-employee interactions.
B. stimulate better job performance.
C. demonstrate correct methods for work procedures.
D. make sure that the subordinate’s behavior is tightly controlled.
E. avoid legal problems, especially discrimination complaints.
stimulate better job performance (B)
In giving feedback to a subordinate, a manager should
A. communicate her general impression of the subordinate.
B. avoid giving negative feedback.
C. deliver feedback through a one-way communication process.
D. save giving feedback for annual or semi-annual formal appraisals.
E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates’ performance.
keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates’ performance (E)
Which of the following is the best statement of feedback?
A. “You’re always doing personal stuff at work.”
B. “That’s the wrong way to sort those packages.”
C. “You are really unmotivated at work lately.”
D. “Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve.” E. “You’ve got to figure out how to improve your relationship with Susie.”
Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve (D)
Which of the following is not a type of compensation?
A. Wages
B. Promotions
C. Incentives
D. Benefits
E. Salaries
Promotion (B)
Which of the following is an example of an employee benefit?
A. Education reimbursements
B. Commissions
C. Profit-sharing plans
D. Bonuses
E. Stock options
Education reimbursements (A)
Executives often negotiate generous severance packages that they receive if the company is taken over by another. These are known as
A. quid pro quo.
B. golden parachutes.
C. maquiladoras.
D. BARS.
E. 360-degree pay.
golden parachutes (B)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful incentive pay plan?
A. Clear goals
B. Regular communication with employees about the incentive plan
C. Realistic goals
D. Complex and comprehensive rules
E. Consistency with the organization’s existing goals
complex and comprehensive rules (D)
In managing subordinates under an incentive pay plan, a manager should A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan.
B. set goals with subordinates, but then leave them alone to pursue those goals. C. change the plan frequently to continue to motivate subordinates.
D. set “stretch” goals that are very difficult (perhaps impossible) to achieve. E. design complex plans that cover all contingencies.
regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan (A)
In considering a promotion for a subordinate, a manager must ensure fairness and
A. openness.
B. permanence.
C. profitability.
D. nondiscrimination.
E. safety.
nondiscrimination (D)
Which of the following is not a principal reason why an employee may be transferred?
A. Employee’s skills are needed in another part of the organization.
B. To retain employee interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge.
C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior.
D. Employee has a personal differences with present boss.
E. To broaden employee experience.
Employee is suspected of illegal behavior (C)
If employees have been dismissed “for cause,” this means that
A. they have the right to get their position back in the future.
B. they quit the job.
C. the company is downsizing, and their jobs are permanently eliminated.
D. they are being laid off.
E. they are being fired for their job performance.
they are being fired for their job performance (E)
The risk of “wrongful termination” lawsuits is reduced with careful
A. coaching.
B. discussion at the time of dismissal.
C. documentation.
D. employee training.
E. goal setting.
documentation (C)
_____ means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at all, or for no reason. A. Employment at will
B. Capricious dismissal
C. Quid pro quo
D. Nonrational dismissal E. Fair termination
Employment at will
Hezekiah has an employee, Pamela, who has had frequent outbursts in the workplace when dealing with others. Despite repeated attempts to correct her behavior, she has not improved. Which of the following is a good suggestion for handling this case?
A. Fire Pamela if her outbursts continue for another year.
B. Fire Pamela effective immediately, and have her escorted off the premises.
C. Use Pamela’s dismissal as an example to others to increase their productivity.
D. Dismiss Pamela, but offer her assistance in finding another job.
E. Don’t dismiss Pamela because she needs your sympathy.
Dimiss Pamela, but offer her assistance in finding another job (D)
_______ are organizations of employees formed to protect and advance their members’ interests by bargaining with management over job-related issues.
A. Mediation firms
B. Right-to-work groups
C. COLA organizations
D. Arbitration associations
E. Labor unions
Labor unions
The part of the labor-management agreement that states that employees who receive union benefits must join the union, or at least pay dues to it, is known as the
A. union security clause.
B. right-to-work clause.
C. COLA clause.
D. givebacks clause.
E. agency clause.
union security clause (A)
Bethany had a starring role in a film that was shot in her hometown of Baton Rouge, Louisiana. Though the Screen Actors Guild, an actors’ union, exists in Louisiana, Bethany was not required to join it because of the state’s ________ law.
A. union security
B. right-to-work
C. givebacks
D. COLA
E. agency
right-to-work
Typically the ________ in a union contract is tied to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics’ consumer price index (CPI).
A. union security clause
B. right-to-work clause
C. COLA clause
D. givebacks clause
E. agency clause
COLA clause (C)
In 2009, the United Auto Workers union negotiated with Ford Motor Company a variety of ________, such as a $1/hour pay decrease and changes to overtime structure, designed to prevent Ford from declaring bankruptcy.
A. union security clauses
B. right-to-work agreements
C. COLAs
D. givebacks
E. arbitration agreements
givebacks (D)
If a grievance procedure is not sufficient to solve a labor-management dispute, a binding decision may be sought from
A. a shop steward. B. the AFL-CIO. C. a mediator.
D. the EEOC.
E. an arbitrator.
an arbitrator (E)

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