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Nutrition test #4

1. All of the following are risks from being underweight except:
a. earlier death during a famine or siege.
b. higher risk of developing heart disease.
c. greater risk of starvation when suffering from cancer.
d. higher risk of death following surgery.
2. Excess body fatness is associated with an increased risk of:
a. some cancers.
b. gallbladder disease.
c. diverticular disease.
d. a and b
e. b and c
3. Excess fat _____ represents a greater risk to health than excess fat elsewhere on the body.
a. under the skin around the hips
b. deep within the abdomen
c. deep within the shoulders
d. under the skin of the chest
4. Waist circumference reflects the degree of _____ in proportion to body fatness.
a. visceral fatness
b. gynoid obesity
c. subcutaneous fat
d. total body fatness
5. A body mass index of 25.0 to 29.9 in an adult indicates:
a. normal weight.
b. overweight.
c. underweight.
d. obesity.
6. A rule of thumb that has been used in the past but does not apply equally to everyone is that one pound of body fat is equal to _____ calories.
a. 2500
b. 3000
c. 3500
d. 4000
7. Which of the following statements about basal metabolism is true?
a. It supports the work that goes on all the time.
b. It is directly controlled by the hormone thyroxine.
c. It accounts for the smallest component of the average person’s daily energy expenditure.
d. a and b
e. b and c
8. About _____ percent of a meal’s energy value is used up in stepped-up metabolism in the five or so hours following that meal.
a. 1-5
b. 5-10
c. 10-15
d. 15-20
9. All of the following factors are associated with a higher basal metabolic rate except:
a. stress.
b. starvation.
c. fever.
d. youth.
10. Older people generally need less energy than younger people due to:
a. slowed basal metabolic rate.
b. declines in lean body mass.
c. decreases in height.
d. a and b
e. a and c
11. Body mass index is unsuitable for use with:
a. adolescents.
b. athletes.
c. pregnant women.
d. a and b
e. b and c
12. A woman of normal weight may have, on the average, _____ percent of her body weight as fat.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
13. Hunger makes itself known roughly _____ hours after eating.
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-5
d. 4-6
14. The hormone produced by adipose tissue in response to a gain in body fatness that helps to control obesity is:
a. endorphin.
b. ghrelin.
c. leptin.
d. insulin.
15. The psychological desire to eat is referred to as:
a. satiety.
b. appetite.
c. hunger.
d. obesity
18. All of the following are involved in signaling satiation except:
a. the stomach.
b. the small intestine.
c. the brain’s hypothalamus.
d. the heart.
16. Which of the following types of foods sustain satiety longer than other foods?
a. high in fiber
b. high in protein
c. high in sugar
d. a and b
e. b and c
17. _____ tissue is particularly abundant in enzymes that engage in thermogenesis but don’t accomplish any other work.
a. Lean
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Excess adipose
d. Brown adipose
18. One “outside of the body” factor that contributes to obesity is:
a. the “built environment,” which can discourage physical activity.
b. eating automatically in response to hunger cues.
c. spontaneous fidgeting activity.
d. a lack of food availability.
20. Which of the following strategies would be appropriate for an obese individual with a BMI of 40 or above who is healthy?
a. an herbal supplement
b. surgery such as a gastric bypass
c. liposuction or lipectomy
d. an ephedrine-containing dietary supplement
21. Complications immediately following obesity surgery often include all of the following except:
a. dehydration.
b. infection.
c. high blood pressure.
d. nausea
22. Physical activity:
a. results in easier weight loss than calorie restriction.
b. improves chances for weight-loss success.
c. doubles energy expenditure in nonathletes.
d. a and b
e. b and c
23. Quick, large changes in weight are most likely the result of all of the following except:
a. changes in fat stores.
b. changes in body fluid content.
c. changes in electrolytes and fluid balance.
d. changes in lean tissues such as muscles
24. In early food deprivation, the nervous system cannot use _____ as fuel.
a. fat
b. glucose
c. protein
d. carbohydrate
25. A healthy person starting with average body fat can live totally deprived of food for as long as six to eight weeks due to:
a. acidosis.
b. thermogenesis.
c. metabolism.
d. ketosis.
26. Energy nutrients can be stored in the body as:
a. glycogen.
b. water.
c. fat.
d. a and c
e. a and b
27. Which of the following is not a true statement?
a. Carbohydrate from food is especially easy for the body to store as fat.
b. Protein is used to build muscles in response to exercise.
c. Alcohol delivers calories and encourages fat storage.
d. Any food can make you fat if you eat enough of it.
28. One of the major benefits of physical activity for weight management is:
a. an increase in appetite immediately after exercise.
b. an increase in lean muscle tissue, which burns more energy.
c. being able to eat high-calorie snacks.
d. significantly raising the BMR for several hours after exercise.
19. A person trying to gain weight should:
a. participate in strength training.
b. eat more frequently.
c. avoid aerobic activities.
d. a and b
e. a and c
1. Examples of aerobic physical activity include all of the following except:
a. brisk walking.
b. using weight machines.
c. swimming.
d. bicycling.
2. What is the intensity level of a physical activity that causes some increase in breathing, is a perceived exertion of 5 or 6, and allows you to have a conversation while doing the activity?
a. sedentary
b. light
c. moderate
d. vigorous
3. One thing to consider when attempting to increase daily physical activity for health is to:
a. begin slowly by only exercising one to two days a week.
b. avoid vigorous exercise if you are elderly.
c. include a higher proportion of vigorous physical activity.
d. begin with a moderate-intensity activity such as brisk walking.
4. The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend:
a. specific amounts of only aerobic physical activity.
b. only vigorous-intensity physical activity as beneficial.
c. spending the same amount of time each day on activity.
d. accumulating activities in weekly totals of at least 10-minute sessions.
5. Which of the following is not a component of fitness?
a. flexibility
b. muscle strength
c. balance
d. muscle endurance
e. cardiorespiratory endurance
7. Muscles respond to the overload of exercise by gaining:
a. strength.
b. fat.
c. size.
d. a and b
e. a and c
8. Progressive weight training is not associated with:
a. increased muscle strength.
b. management of cardiovascular disease.
c. greater bone density.
d. reduced lean body tissue.
9. Weight training results in all of the following except:
a. improved posture.
b. muscle strength and endurance.
c. prevention and management of chronic diseases.
d. decreased bone density.
10. Active people often have resting pulse rates of _____ beats per minute or lower.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 70
11. Characteristics of cardiorespiratory endurance include:
a. increased cardiac output and oxygen delivery.
b. reduced blood pressure.
c. increased resting pulse.
d. a and c
e. a and b
12. In the early minutes of an activity, _____ provides the majority of energy the muscles use to go into action.
a. fat
b. liver glycogen
c. muscle glycogen
d. protein
14. Anaerobic glucose breakdown produces a compound called _____ that accumulates in the tissues and blood.
a. urea
b. lactate
c. uric acid
d. amino acid
15. Lactate buildup in working muscles:
a. raises blood pH to indicate that muscles have not worked enough.
b. indicates that anaerobic breakdown of glucose has occurred.
c. produces a large amount of energy to be used by the muscles.
d. causes muscle fatigue.
16. Which of the following factors does not influence how much glucose a person uses during physical activity?
a. carbohydrate intake
b. age of the person exercising
c. duration of the activity
d. degree of training of the muscles
17. Strategies that help endurance athletes maintain their blood glucose concentrations for as long as they can include:
a. eating a high-carbohydrate diet regularly.
b. taking in glucose during endurance activities.
c. consuming fat and protein before the event.
d. a and b
e. b and c
18. A person who continues exercising moderately for longer than _____ minutes begins to use less glucose and more fat for fuel.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
19. Glycogen storage is:
a. unlimited.
b. limited to less than 2000 calories.
c. limited to about 70,000 calories.
d. not important because of other fuels.
21. The amount of protein needed for physical activity varies depending on:
a. the type of exercise, with endurance exercise requiring more.
b. carbohydrate intake, with high carbohydrate intakes requiring more protein.
c. the amount of training in a particular exercise an athlete has had.
d. the need for BCAA supplementation to increase protein synthesis.
22. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics recommends _____ grams protein per kilogram of body weight each day for an endurance athlete.
a. 0.8 to 1.2
b. 1.2 to 1.4
c. 1.6 to 2.2
d. 2.2 to 2.6
23. Which of the following nutrients is important for athletes because it is needed for the formation of collagen?
a. vitamin E
b. iron
c. thiamin
d. vitamin C
24. The main role of _____ in supporting physical activity is to serve as an antioxidant.
a. vitamin E
b. beta-carotene
c. vitamin C
d. folate
27. The first symptom of dehydration (besides thirst) is:
a. hypoglycemia.
b. heavy breathing.
c. heat stroke.
d. fatigue.
28. The body’s need for _____ far surpasses that for any other nutrient.
a. fat
b. water
c. carbohydrate
d. protein
30. During non-endurance exercise the optimal beverage for replacing fluids is:
a. a beverage that supplies glucose.
b. fruit juice.
c. cool water.
d. a salt solution.
31. To prevent hyponatremia during prolonged events, athletes should:
a. drink large amounts of water over the course of the event.
b. favor sports drinks over water.
c. eat pretzels in the last half of a long event.
d. a and b
e. b and c
32. Sports drinks offer some advantages over water for athletes who:
a. need to replenish electrolytes.
b. are older.
c. exercise outside in cold weather.
d. a and b
e. b and c
33. Moderate use of caffeine by athletes:
a. may assist performance.
b. slows down reactions.
c. depletes glycogen stores.
d. has no adverse effects.
34. Which of the following should not be used by athletes for fluid replacement?
a. sports beverages
b. carbonated beverages
c. alcohol
d. a and b
e. b and c
35. For athletic performance, the diet should consist of all of the following except:
a. nutrient-dense foods.
b. foods moderate in fat.
c. foods high in carbohydrates.
d. supplements high in protein.
36. Active people need nutrient-dense foods such as _____ to supply vitamins, minerals, and phytochemicals.
a. breakfast bars
b. whole-wheat bread
c. iceberg lettuce
d. potato chips
37. Any meal should be finished at least _____ hours before an athletic competition.
a. 1 or 2
b. 2 or 3
c. 3 or 4
d. 4 or 5
38. Which of the following is an advantage of sports bars for athletes?
a. They provide complete nutrition.
b. They are inexpensive.
c. They are easy to eat in the hours before competition.
d. They are superior to homemade snacks.
1. Which of the following hazards in our food supply is of most concern according to the Food and Drug Administration?
a. natural toxins
b. food additives
c. microbial foodborne illness
d. environmental contaminants
2. The difference between foodborne infection and foodborne intoxication is that:
a. foodborne intoxication results from chemicals produced by microbes.
b. foodborne intoxication requires oxygen for microbes to multiply.
c. foodborne infection can be detected by a bad odor in food.
d. foodborne infection cannot result from eating raw vegetables.
3. The foodborne infection that is most commonly a result of eating contaminated eggs or poultry is caused by:
a. Salmonella.
b. Listeria.
c. Clostridium botulinum.
d. Staphylococcus aureus.
4. Which of the following should not be used to thaw frozen meats?
a. refrigerator thawing
b. defrosting at room temperature
c. defrosting in a bath of warm water
d. a and b
e. b and c
5. After cooking, foods should be held at _____° F or higher until served.
a. 110
b. 120
c. 130
d. 140
6. Which of the following is most susceptible to bacterial contamination?
a. roast
b. steak
c. ground meat
d. chicken
7. Which of the following groups should avoid all uncooked or undercooked eggs?
a. the elderly
b. healthy adults
c. those who suffer immune dysfunction
d. a and b
e. a and c
8. Which of the following foods would you not choose for a picnic?
a. fresh fruits
b. mixed salad of chopped ingredients
c. breads and crackers
d. canned cheeses
9. The agency charged with the responsibility of deciding which food additives are allowed is the:
a. United States Department of Agriculture.
b. Food and Drug Administration.
c. Environmental Protection Agency.
d. Federal Trade Commission.
10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the GRAS list?
a. It includes a list of additives believed to be safe.
b. It stands for “generally recognized as safe.”
c. It is not subject to revision.
d. a and b
e. a and c
11. Which of the following synthetic sweeteners should not be consumed by individuals with phenylketonuria?
a. saccharin
b. sucralose
c. aspartame
d. neotame
12. Which of the following nonnutritive sweeteners is made from sucrose?
a. aspartame
b. sucralose
c. saccharin
d. acesulfame
Cardiovascular disease affects men and women equally. t/f
women in their reproductive years have interdominal fat. t/f
chronic diseases are the only diseases that affect people in developed countries. t/f
active people don’t need fluid in cold weather. t/f
another name for degenerative diseases
athletes need more protein than sedentary people. t/f
taller people need more energy than short people. t/f
DRI recommendation for carbs per day
excess calories from fat, protein, or carbs increases cancer rates. t/f
eating certain foods increases BMR and promotes weight loss. t/f
if you’re trying to reduce the risk of heart diseases, modify ——- because of its effect on cholesterol
it repairs muscle tissue
why do we need protein in exercising
AND recommends this much protein per body pound of body weight
overeating because of mood, depression is an example of what kind of cue?
walking increases the odds against heart disease. t/f
symptoms are appearing normal, throwing up, wanting to look skinny
which hormone helps control obesity?
distorted body image
central to the diagnosis of anorexia is a
major benefit to physical activity is that it raises —– after exercise in a significant amount
age and genes
risk factors for developing hypertension
ideal BP
definition of having desire to eat even if you are full
1 pound of body fat equals how many calories
glycogen depletion occurs after how many hours of vigorous activity
heart disease in women shows the same symptoms as a heart attack in men. t/f
is high blood HDL disease related. t/f

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