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Personal and Community Health Midterm

The health determinant over which we have least control is
family history
The seven dimensions of wellness
are interrelated
The seven dimensions of wellness include all of the following EXCEPT
dietary wellness
Which one of the following qualities contributes most to one’s physical wellness?
eating well
Optimism, trust, and self-confidence are components of
emotional wellness
Adam’s parents are not overly concerned about their son’s ability to adapt to college because he has always had a good sense of humor, been curious, and demonstrated an openness to idea. These qualities are reflective of Adam’s ___ wellness.
intellectual
Occupational wellness is measured by how much ___ the job offers.
happiness
Spiritual wellness is best described as having
meaning and purpose in one’s life
Protecting yourself from exposure to toxic substances in the workplace is an example of promoting ___ wellness.
environmental
If you were born in 1900, your life expectancy was approximately.
47 years
The average life span in the twentieth century
nearly doubled
Which of the following is currently America’s number-one cause of death
heart disease
All of the following are lifestyle choices EXCEPT
growing up on a farm
The process of enabling people to increase control over their health and improve their health is
health promotion
In the past 100 years, the major cause of death have shifted from ___ to ___.
infectious diseases; chronic diseases
The top three causes of death among Americans age 15 to 24 are
accidents, homicide, and suicide
By far, the leading preventable cause of death among Americans is
smoking
A goal of Healthy People 2020 is to
eliminate health disparities among Americans
Which of the following statements regarding the health of diverse population groups is correct?
American ethnic minorities have higher rates of death and disability than the US population as a whole
John, an African American student, has chosen to incorporate exercise into his daily routine and reduce the amount of salt in his diet after finding out that his blood pressure is high. HIs decision to make these lifestyle changes is most likely based on the following health concerns for African Americans.
They have higher rates of high blood pressure and obesity
When compared to the general US population, Asian Americans have
lower overall death rates
In the US, on average
women live about five years longer than men
Income and education are closely linked with health status. The ___ the poverty rate and the ___ the education level, the better the health.
lower; higher
People with disabilities are more likely to
be obese
Homosexual teens are at greater risk for
suicide
The most important factor in determining an individual’s level of wellness is
behavior
The complete set of genetic material in an individual’s cells is referred to as his or her
genome
Which of the following are factors that influence wellness?
all of these
The following are all environmental factors, EXCEPT
your genetic makeup
The first step in improving wellness by lifestyle management is to
begin with a self-assessment
The behavior one identifies for change is called
target behavior
Part of a successful plan to change an unhealthy behavior is to
start small
THe least effective plan for starting to change health behavior is one that
attempts to change more than one behavior at the same time
Eduardo has identified gambling as a target behavior because it is interfering with his schoolwork. To help him stop this behavior, he may need to
find outside help
A target behavior can best be defined as
one behavior you want to change
The belief in one’s ability to be successful in the performance of a given task is
self-efficacy
Your ability to successfully take action and perform specific tasks, defines the term
self-efficacy
When evaluating health topics on the Internet, check the
qualifications of the people behind the site
Those with an internal focus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on
their actions
Donna is about 25 pounds overweight, has tried a variety of diets, and has repeatedly failed to maintain weight loss. She defends her weight with the explanation that most of her relatives are overweight, and none has ever been successful with attempts to lose weight. Donna can best be described as
having an external locus of control
The technique of visualization is one of the best ways to
boost your confidence
A strategy to increase your chances of success in the pursuit of a new behavior is to
frequently visualize goal attainment and enjoy its benefits
Barriers to behavior change
can be a source of information used to boost your chance of success
The most constructive response to a temporary setback in the pursuit of a new behavior is
accepting the fact that problems may periodically occur
Teresa would like to begin eating healthier and has created a plan of action to help reach that goal. Her study group meets at a fast food restaurant twice a week, and she has asked them to meet at the library instead. Teresa understands that to meet her goal, she needs to
modify her environment
The precontemplation stage is characterized by
a belief that there is no need for change
During a “stages of change” behavior change program, some people may lapse. If this occurs, the best strategy for them is to
learn from the lapse as they cycle back through earlier stages
The order in which a behavior change strategy is implemented is
monitor behavior, analyze data, set goals, devise a plan of action, make a contract
Entries made into a health journal about a behavior should note all of the following EXCEPT
what your friends and family did
Which of the following health journal information would be of little benefit in promoting personal behavior change?
identification of other people’s reactions to your behavior
Anne wants to lose weight and is keeping a health journal to record her progress. Which of the following questions might be appropriately asked in the course of analyzing data from her health journal?
How many behaviors in my life are serious health threats?
According to the SMART criteria, a behavior change such as “drink eight cups of water every day” is an example of being
realistic
The best plan for behavior change
works at change systematically
Chances of success in behavior management DECREASE if
environmental cues are ignored
To help ensure success with a behavior change program, you should
develop a reward system
Rewards included in health action plans should
include limited participation in the behavior you are trying to eliminate
A friend who is attempting to lose weight has been repeatedly “derailed” by coworkers who bring high-calorie snack to work. An effective strategy for her would be to
choose new target behaviors
A primary purpose of developing a personal contract for behavior change is to
commit you to your word of behavior modification
Writing a contract for behavior change involves all of the following EXCEPT
identifying the consequences of failure to reach the established goal
Information from a health journal maintained after a behavior change plan is put into action can be used to
track progress
Maintaining good health is
an ongoing process
With regard to one’s health, which one of the following elements is most within an individual’s control?
behavior
Which of the following is an example of taking action to modify the environment and support health behaviors?
all of these are examples
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding stress and the lives of college students?
it may be one of the most stressful periods in one’s life
The term stress refers to
situations that can trigger physical and emotional reactions
Situations that trigger physical and emotional reactions are termed
stressors
Which one of the following is a stressor?
bad grade
Which of the following systems are responsible for your body’s physical response to stressors?
nervous and endocrine
The branch of the autonomic nervous system that activated when a person is exposed to a stressor is the ___ nervous system.
sympathetic
The autonomic nervous system controls all the following EXCEPT the
ability to write
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
is in control when one is frightened or angry
The system of glands, tissues, and cells that helps control body functions by releasing hormones is the
endocrine system
During the stress response, the human adrenal glads release
epinephrine
During the stress response, which of the following changes occurs throughout the body as a result of the release of epinephrine.
all of the choices are correct
Which of the following body reactions is characteristic of the stress response?
your heart rate increases
Homeostasis
is a state of stability in an individual’s functions
The division of the autonomic nervous system that slows down the body as it recovers from exposure to a stressor is the ___ nervous system.
parasympathetic
Once a stressful situation ends, your parasympathetic nervous system
slows breathing
All of the following are TRUE regarding the fight or flight response, EXCEPT that
it is a relatively new human adaptation
The somatic nervous system manages
conscious actions
Which of the following nervous systems manages John’s moves as he participates in a spinning exercise class?
somatic
THe way in which an individual responds to stress is influenced by
All of these influence the way an individual responds to stress
The sum of cognitive, behavioral, and emotional tendencies refers to one’s
personality
Which one of the following characteristics is most closely associated with elevated risk of cardiovascular disease?
hostility
The personality type associated with relaxation and contemplation is
Type B
An individual with a Type C personality is characterized by
having difficulty expressing emotions
A person who suppresses anger and feels hopeless has characteristics of which personality type?
Type C
Behavioral responses to stressors are controlled by which division of the nervous system?
somatic
Which statement about people with hardy personalities is FALSE?
they view stressors as challenges
An example of a resilient person would be
a low-income student graduating from college
According to the American Psychological Association, which percent of adult Americans suffer from stress-related health problems?
between 70 to 80 percent
Which of the following is a hormone involved in the regulation of mood and social interaction?
oxytocin
GAS is an acronym for
general adaptation syndrome
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
All stress has a negative impact on physical health
Eustress
is stress triggered by something pleasant
Mohammad just received an F on his term paper. Which type of stress is he likely to experience?
distress
Which one of the following is NOT a stage of GAS?
acceleration
The flight-or-fight reaction occurs during which stage of GAS?
alarm
Tom is very anxious about an upcoming exam. He has no appetite, is easily distracted, and has a headache. In which stage of GAS is Tom?
alarm
During the resistance stage of GAS, the body
readjusts, regulating body systems to establish a new level of homeostasis
General exhaustion results when
a stressor persists over a long period of time
Long-term overexposure to stress hormones
has been linked to health problems
The long-term wear and tear of the stress response has been termed
the allostatic load
Psychoneuroimmunology (PNI) is the study of the interaction among all the following systems, EXCEPT the ___ system
respiratory
Which one of the following has been linked to a high allostatic load?
all of these choices are correct
Which of the following statements is NOT true of a high allostatic load?
it is linked with physical wellness
Shauna expects all of the following to happen when she is stressed, EXCEPT
dilation of her blood vessels
Which one of the following has NOT been linked to unmanaged stress?
glaucoma
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
Being a little nervous before an exam will lower your performance
Stress has been found to contribute to which of the following psychological problems?
all of the choices are correct
About 90% of all headaches are
tension headaches
The majority of migraine sufferers are
women
According to you text, which of the following are common sources of stress for most college students?
academic demands and time management concerns
Americans rated ____ as their number one source of stress
work
New technologies can
have all of the above effects
Violent surroundings and intrusive noises are examples of
environmental stressors
Unrealistic expectations are a type of ____ stressor
internal
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
acute stress and chronic stress similarly affect the immune system
If you are still emotionally distressed days or weeks after a tragic event,
a and b (that is normal, give yourself more time and consider sharing your feelings with others)
Which of the following would be the LEAST effective strategy for coping with stress?
denying the reality of stress
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exercise and its ability to help manage stress?
exercise reduces anxiety levels
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding exercise and its ability to help manage stress?
three 45 minute walks per week can increase your sense of wellness
Exercise can
b and c (release energy mobilized during the stress response and improve your sense of wellness)
All of the following occur in non-REM sleep, EXCEPT
the occurrence of dreams
Peak concentrations of the levels of stress hormones in the bloodstream occur
during the final stages of sleep
Which of the following is TRUE?
dreams occur during REM sleep
A common time-management stressor is
procrastination
Which one of the following statements reflects your text’s recommendations regarding the prioritization of tasks?
tasks should be divided into three groups, and you should ignore the least important group
According to your text, one strategy to improve time-management problems is to
divide tasks into groups that can be prioritized
In terms of time-management strategies, which one of the following is NOT considered helpful to improving your efficiency at completing tasks?
memorizing your goals
All of the following are recommended by your text as time-management strategies, EXCEPT
avoiding unstructured time
Which of the following would NOT be helpful to you in attempting to improve your productivity?
focus on long-term goals only
Because watching television is usually a “time sink” when you are on a deadline, it is wise to
avoid turning on the television
Which one of the following is a cognitive technique for stress management?
thinking constructively
Which one of the following is NOT a cognitive technique for stress management?
using imagery
Phillip is attempting to lessen his feelings of stress. Which of the following would NOT be helpful?
trying to remember as much information as possible
Laughter does all of the following EXCEPT
lower blood pressure
Laughter may be the best medicine for stress, because after a good laugh your
heart rate is lowered
A helpful behavior is dealing with stressful situation is to
cultivate the ability to laugh at yourself
Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the relaxation response?
metabolism and oxygen consumption are reduced
Progressive relaxation techniques
involve tensing and then relaxing muscles in your body
Which of the following statements is TRUE of progressive relaxation?
It requires no willpower or imagination
Progressive relaxation is best described by which one of the following statements?
it is a process that uses simple tensing and relaxing of muscles
Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
imagery is a cognitive technique designed to change typical patterns of thinking
Carey would like to use meditation to help manage the effects of stress. Which of the following is likely to happen as a result of her use of this technique?
It will help her tune out the world, temporarily removing sources of stress
A stress management technique that focuses primarily on your breathing pattern is called
hatha yoga
Which of the following stress management techniques emphasizes the use of breathing, stretching and balance?
hatha yoga
Tai chi can be an effective stress reducer because it
teaches students to remain calm and centered
All of these are considered counterproductive coping strategies EXCEPT
multivitamin use
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
caffeine acts as a sedative
Approximately ____ of Americans use food as a coping device against stress
25 percent
The first step in creating a personal plan for managing stress is to
identify your stressors
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
psychological health and physical health are intertwined
Which of the following statements is most TRUE regarding psychological health?
freedom from psychological disorders is a comprehensive definition of psychological health
Psychological health is another term for
mental health
According to Maslow, basic human needs are ranked in the following order as they DECREASE in urgency
physiological needs, safety, being loved, maintaining self-esteem, self actualization
Being self-actualized is characterized by
realism
Maslow would NOT have described a self-actualized person as someone who
remains focused on the idea of the way things should be
Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of self-actualized people?
they are largely able to accept themselves and others
People who are self-accepting usually
have a positive by realistic perception of themselves
Which of the following statements describes people who are autonomous?
they are inner-directed
Being inner-directed is most closely associated with
autonomy
Making decisions based on your own values as opposed to a larger group’s is a sign of
autonomy
People not afraid to be themselves and be “real” can be described as
authentic
The ability to share feelings without fear of rejection from another is most closely associated with
the capacity for intimacy
A continuing appreciation of the world is most closely associated with
creativity
Alex, age 28, lives in a safe and friendly community, he has a stable job, and is involved in a relationship with a loving and supportive person. According to Maslow, Alex has a chance of attaining
self-actualization
Which of the following phrases is the best description of psychological normality?
what most people do
Being psycologically normal is the same as
being close to average
Our early identity models are most likely to be
our parents
One’s identity
is a lifelong process
Maggie, a junior in college, is changing her major for the fourth time. She expresses frustration about her attempt to chose a course of study that best reflects her and her interests rather than the career path her family expects of her. Maggie is
experiencing an identity crises
People with established identities tend to do all the following EXCEPT
remain isolated
Which statement regarding the development of self-esteem is FALSE?
rejected children may fail to develop feelings of self-worth
Stability, as it relates to self-esteem, is best described as
a complete absence of mixed messages about oneself from others
A demoralized person would do all of the following EXCEPT
take responsibility for unfortunate situations
A technique that may aid in fighting demoralization is
keeping a journal of self-talk
Which of the following statements is an example of negative self-talk?
“I won the talent contest, but only because none of the other contestants was very good.”
Defense mechanisms like humor and substitution might best be described as
temporary means of coping
A person who expects failure and accepts it as deserved is called a(n)
pessimist
A defense mechanism by which unacceptable inner impulses are attributed to others is
projection
A defense mechanism by which unacceptable thoughts or wishes are excluded from consciousness is
repression
A psychological defense by which unacceptable feelings are transferred from one event or person to a less threatening one is
displacement
What is the defense mechanism that allows a false; acceptable reason to be given when the real reason is unacceptable?
rationalization
Expressing wishes forcefully, but not necessarily hostiley, describes being
assertive
A part of assertiveness is characterized most by
getting what you want
All of the following are positive reasons to socialize EXCEPT
fear of being alone
If you feel explosive anger coming on, one strategy for managing it is to
try to reframe what you are thinking at the moment
If you are dealing with anger in another person, you should NOT
accept the verbal abuse, as it is usually a temporary display
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for heading off explosive anger?
having an alcoholic drink
According to the National Institute of Mental Health in 2009, approximately what percent of adult Americans who suffered from a diagnosable psychological disorder?
26 percent
Psychological disorders may be a result of all the following EXCEPT
good coping skills
People exposed to a higher number of traumatic life events than others typically
a and b
Which of the following statements about fear is false?
it is a useful tool to cope with life
Which of the following does NOT play a major part in psychological disorders?
they all play a major part
An example of a specific phobia is fear of
dogs
Which of the following is a social phobia?
fear of embarrassment
Fear of public speaking is actually a
fear of being observed by others.
People usually develop panic disorder in their
early twenties
Panic disorder is
a type of anxiety disorder
Symptoms of panic disorder typically include
a loss of physical equilibrium
Fear of flying is an example of
panic disorder
Shyness is often the result of high levels of anxiety and
lack of social skills
A condition that causes the sufferer to fear future threats, pushing out all other thoughts, is called
generalized anxiety disorder
An obsession is a ____ thought
cultivated, irrational
Repetitive, hard-to-resist actions associated with obsessions are
compulsions
An example of an obsession is
concern of contracting syphilis from a handshake
An example of a compulsion is
constant and repetitive hand washing
Post-traumatic stress disorder is most likely to occur after which of the following?
rape
Symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder
include re-experiencing the trauma in dreams and intrusive memories
A person who is housebound because of severe anxiety has
agoraphobia
After the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001, PTSD was shown to have affected
all of the above
Which of the following is a characteristic of depression?
loss of pleasure in doing usual activities
Which of the following is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of suicide?
all of the above
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for suicide?
suicide of a family member or friend
Biological researchers have found genetic influences on
Though ____ attempt suicide more often, ____ succeed more often.
women; men
Of the millions of people suffering from clinical depression, ___ seek treatment.
35 percent
Which of the following is the best initial treatment for a person with moderate to severe depression?
drug therapy combined with psychotherapy
A key neurotransmitter that is important in the treatment of depression is called
serotonin
A treatment used for severe depression when other approaches fail is
electroconvulsive therapy
THe preferred method of treatment for seasonal affective disorder is
light therapy
Seasonal affective disorder
is more prevalent among people living at higher altitudes
Which of the following attribute best characterizes manic behavior?
Manic disorders are characterized by
high energy levels
A drug commonly used to prevent mood swings associated with bipolar disorder is
lithium carbonate
A delusion is
a firmly held false belief
Which of the following is NOT a likely characteristic of a schizophrenic disorder?
compulsive organization
Schizophrenic disorders are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
extremely high energy levels
Which of the following statements is TRUE of schizophrenia?
schizophrenics can be logical in their thinking
Which statement regarding schizophrenics is false?
they are not at risk for suicide
Treatment for which of the following disorders MUST include drug therapy?
schizophrenia
For some, self-help can be very useful. This includes
raising self-esteem by conteracting negative thoughts and people
Religious belief
promotes psychological health for some individuals
College students can typically find inexpensive mental health care through
all of the above
Which of the following statements regarding professional help for psychological health is TRUE?
for some, professional help is a choice; for others, it is a necessity
The type of therapy based on the premise that the mind’s activity depends on the brain and is genetically determined is ___ therapy.
cognitive
The type of therapy that focuses on what people do is ____ therapy
behavioral
The technique of exposure is used to
encourage people to face their fears
The type of therapy that emphasizes the effects of ideas on behaviors and feelings is ____ therapy
In the cognitive therapeutic approach, patients are taught to
Cognitive-behavioral therapies have been developed for all of the following, EXCEPT
Which of the following statements about peer counselors is FALSE?
they can recommend specific treatment options
Which mental health professional is involved when a person requires medication?
psychiatrist
Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
drowsiness
Which of the following mental health professionals is a licensed physician?
psychiatrist
Which of the following professionals requires the most formal education?
psychiatrist
To help reduce social anxiety,
a and b
Gonads are
ovaries and testes
What are considered the basic units of reproduction in both males and females?
germ cells
The external female sex organs are called the
vulva
The ___ consists of spongy tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual excitement.
clitoris
In females, the prepuce is also called the
clitoral hood
The passage that leads to the internal female reproductive organs is the
vagina
The fertilized egg is implanted in the ___, where it grows into a fetus.
uterus
The fallopian tubes link the
ovaries and uterus
The scrotum
maintains the temperature of the testes
The temperature of the testes is approximately __ than the temperature of the rest of the body.
5 degrees cooler
Sperm are manufactured in
tubules in the testes
The sperm-storing structure on the surface of the testicles is the
epididymis
Sperm is carried from the epididymis through the
vas deferens
The prostate gland
produces part of the seminal fluid
The route sperm take is
testes to epididymis to vas deferens to prostate gland to seminal vesicles to ejaculatory ducts
The glans is
the rounded head of the clitoris or the penis
A direct analogy can be made between the clitoris and the
glans penis
Male circumcision involves removal of
the prepuce
Circumcision is the surgical removal of the
foreskin of the penis
Which percentage of newborn males in the United States are circumcised?
50 to 60 percent
Although American newborn males are circumcised at a rate of about ___ percent, that rate is down from a high of about ___ percent in the 1960s.
55; 90
On the arguments made in support of male circumcision is that
it reduces teh risk of urinary tract infections in newborns
Hormones are produced by
all of these
Male sex hormones are
androgens
The female sex hormones include high levels of
FSH and LH
Which of the following are female sex hormones?
estrogens and progestins
The hormones secreted by the ___ gland regulate the hormones secreted by the ovaries, testes, and adrenal glands.
pituitary
Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes female?
XX
Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes male?
XY
Which male organ produces testosterone?
testes
The period during which both the male and female reproductive system matures is called
puberty
The first sign of femals puberty is
breast development
The average age of menarche in the US is about
12 years of age
Which of the following is the first phase of the menstrual cycle?
menses
The menstrual cycle consists of four phases is the following order:
menses, estrogenic phase, ovulation, progestationaly phase
Which of the four phases of the menstrual cycle is characterized by menstrual flow?
menses
The release of the ovum is a characteristic of
ovulation
Ovulation theoretically occurs
14 days prior to the onset of menses
Which of the following is teh most accurate definition of dysmenorrhea?
painful menstruation
Place the following conditions in order of severity of symptoms, from least severe to most severe
premenstrual tension, premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Which of the following statements regarding premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is CORRECT?
it interferes with normal daily activities
Which of the following strategies is not recommended to relieve PMS symptoms?
eating a diet low in complex carbs and higher in fat
Which of the following is not recommended for the self-treatment of premenstrual syndrome?
decreasing exercise
Reproductive maturation of boys lags behind that of girls by about ___ year(s).
two
The cessation of menstruation around age 50 is called
menopause
In a very large study of women in 2002, the use of hormone therapy was found to be associated with
increased incidence of heart attacks
Which one of the following statements about the aging male is TRUE?
testosterone production decreases as men age
The most obvious and effective physical simulation involves
touching
Areas of the body that are sensitive to touch are called
erogenous zones
The engorgement of tissues that results when more blood flows into an organ than is flowing out is called
vasocongestion
The first stage of the sexual response cycle is the ___ phase.
excitement
Which of the following is not a common occurence during the first stage of sexual response?
rhythmic contractions in the vagina and penis
The second stage of the sexual response cycle is the _____ phase
plateau
The plateau phase of the sexual response cycle is characterized by
more marked reactions than were initiated in the excitement phase
The third stage of the sexual response cycle is the ___ phase
orgasmic
Rhythmical contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the
orgasmic phase
The fourth stage of the sexual response cycle is the ___ phse
orgasmic
Male and female reactions during the sexual response cycle differ in which of hte following ways?
males enter a refractory period
The refractory period is the
period during which the male cannot be restimulated to orgasm
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of endometriosis?
growth of uterine tissue outside the uterus
_____ is a condition in which the uterine lining grows outside the uterus.
endometriosis
Endometriosis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT
pelvic inflammatory disease
At what age is testicular cancer most frequently diagnosed?
age 20 to 39
The term impotence is also called
erectile dysfunction
A male attempting to engage in intercouse after excessive alcohol consumption is likely to experience
erectile dysfunction
Drinking alcohol prior to sexual activity
makes orgasm more difficult to achieve
The first step for the treatment of sexual dysfunciton is
identifying possible medical conditions
The best current explanation for the development of sexual orientation is
a complex, interrelated set of biological, psychological and social factors
oral stimulation of the female genitalia is called
cunnilingus
Oral stimulation of the penis is called
falltio
The most extreme form of sexual coercion is
rape
Which of the following is a part of healthy, responsible sexual behavior?
practicing safe sex to avoid STDs
Sexual privacy includes all of the following EXCEPT
dark rooms
____ is the natural process of fertilization of an egg by a sperm.
conception
The cell that is created from the fertilization of an ovum with a sperm is called a(n)
zygote
The fertilized egg rests in the lining of the
uterus
If the female egg is not fertilized, it will disintegrate after about
24 hours
An ovum or a sperm has ___ chromosomes.
23
The basic units of heredity that direct the structure and function of all body cells are
genes
Barbara has just given birth to quadruplets – two boys and two girls. At least how many eggs had to be fertilized?
two
Fraternal twins
are no more alike than other siblings
Alice delivered a set of fraternal twins. Which of the following statements about them is TRUE?
they came from two eggs fertilized by a single sperm
Identical twins
share the same genetic code
What percentage of the reproductive-age population of the US is affected by infertility?
7.5 percent
Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often the result of
scarring from sexually transmitted diseases
Kelley’s infertility is caused by blocked fallopian tubes. She has no history of pelvic infections or sexually transmitted diseases. What is the most likely cause of the blockage?
endometriosis
Emily is 30 years old and concerned about the possibility of infertility if she continues to postpone pregnancy. Most physicians would advise her
to have a fertility workup
Each of the following is a cause of male infertility EXCEPT
irregular ejaculation
Which of the following is NOT a primary reason for male infertility?
age
___ is the procedure in which the man’s sperm is collected and concentrated and introduced by syringe into a woman’s vagina or uterus
artificial (intrauterine) insemination
A common treatment for male infertility is
artificial (intrauterine) insemination
The process that results in fertilization of an ovum in a lab dish is called
in vitro fertilization
Surgically placing eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes prior to fertilization is known as
GIFT
The hormone found only in pregnant women that, when detected, confirms pregnancy is
human chorionic gonadotropin
Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone
secreted by the implanted fertilized egg
Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy?
Braxton Hicks contractions
Hegar’s sign is
the softening of the uterus near the cervix
How much weight does a woman gain during a healthy pregnancy, on average?
25-30 pounds
Braxton Hicks contractions and lightening occur during
the third trimester
The greatest degree of physical stress associated with pregnancy occurs
during the third trimester
Which of the following is NOT a common occurence for women during pregnanct?
having limited physical abilities
Cell differentiation and subsequent fetal development are directed by
genetic instructions
The hollow organ in which the blastocyst embeds itself is the
uterus
The conglomerate of cells that implants in the uterus and lays the foundation for the development of the placenta and eventual development of the fetus is the
blastocyst
A key event occuring in the second week following fertilization is
the heart beginning to beat
The blastocyst becomes an embryo about __ days after fertilization.
14
The blastocyst develops into an
embryo
The inner cells of the blastocyst separate into three layers. These three layers become the
embryo
The outer shell of the conglomerate of cells that embeds in the uterus becomes the
placenta
Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy?
back ache
The ___ provides a two-way exchange of nutrients and waste materials between the mother and the fetus.
placenta
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the placenta?
it allows a two-way exchange of nutrients
The stage of prenatal development characterized by development of major body structures and organ systems is
the first trimester
Which of the following occurs during the first trimester?
the heart begins to beat
Which of the following best describes what occurs by the third month of prenatal development?
the fetus becomes active
The earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus might survive outside of the uterus is
end of the second trimester
An ultrasound does NOT provide information about
Down syndrome
Ultrasonography is NOT useful in determining ___ of a fetus
genetic disorders
An amniocentesis
is performed primarily to collect genetic information of a fetus
The primary difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is the
point in the pregnancy when the test can be performed
The quadruple marker screen (QMS) is used to detect
neural tube defects
A quadruple marker screen test can be used to help identify
fetuses with neural tube defects
An area of research known as fetal programming theory examines how ___ may influence the risk of adult diseases
conditions of the womb
Pregnant women typically need to consume how many extra calories a day?
250-500
The Rh factor is a(n)
blood protein
Pregnant women should avoid eating
fruits and vegetables with chemicals
Which vitamin is important for pregnant women?
folate
What does QMS measure?
maternal hormones
Bonnie’s pregnancy has been confirmed with a home pregnancy test. Bonnie should
establish a relationship with a health care provider so that she can receive the appropriate prenatal care
The fetus is extremely vulnerable to environmental factors that can cause birth defects during the
first trimester
Tertogens are
agents that can cause birth defects
Unusual facial features, a small head, and heart defects are characteristic of babies born to mothers whjo
used alcohol during pregnancy
Babies born with fetal alcohol syndrome
may exhibit abnormal behavior patterns
Cigarette use during pregnancy increases the risk of
low birth weight
Pregnant women who smoke increase the risk of
miscarriage
Pregnant women with HIV
can reduce the risk of transmission to the baby with treatment
Which one of the following is the most customary recommendation regarding exercise during pregnancy?
continue a moderate exercise program
Which of the following is NOT considered a benefit of exercise during pregnancy?
weight loss during pregnancy
____ exercises are recommended for pregnant women to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles.
kegel
Which of the following is NOT a reason to undertake prenatal exercise and childbirth classes?
minimizing weight gain
Typically, women receive how many checkup during the first eight months of pregnancy?
once a month
A(n) ____ pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg is implanted outside the uterus.
ectopic
A spontaneous abortion is more commonly known as
a miscarriage
Spontaneous abortions are most commonly caused by
chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus
Which of the following statements about low-birth-weight babies is TRUE?
good prenatal care is the best strategy for prevcenting low birth weight
To reduce the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), parents should
put babies to sleep on their backs
The first stage of labor is characterized by
dilation of the cervix
Strong and frequent uterine contractions are characteristic of
transition
The second stage of labor ends with
the delivery of the baby
The third stage of labor is characterized by
delivery of the placenta
The Apgar score that indicates a newborn baby is doing well five minutes after birth is
7-10
Which of the following is not a benefit associated with breastfeeding?
breastfeeding is a reliable form of birth control
Which of the following is not a usual characteristic of postpartum “baby blues”?
despondency
Which of the following is not an expected occurrence for most mothers during the postpartum period?
postpartum depression
A contraceptive that physically blocks the sperm from reaching the egg is
a barrier method
A contraceptive method that more or less permanently prevents transport of the sperm or egg to the site of conception is a
surgical method
The “typical use” contraceptive failure rate is based on studies that measure the percentage of women experiencing an unintended pregnancy in the first
year of use
A woman that is consistently careful in following instructions is labeled as having the “perfect use” failure rate. What is that failure rate?
.3 percent
The continuation rate of a contraceptive is determined by the percentage of
people who continue to use it after a specified period of time
Oral contraceptives prevent conception by
preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum
Any agent or method that can prevent pregnancy is known as
contraceptive
In addition to preventing ovulation, the birth control pill apparently prevents conception in all of the following ways EXCEPT
constricting the cervical opening
The most common type of oral contraceptive is the
combination pill
In addition to hormone pills, most contraceptive packets also include
one week of inactive pills
When using a combination pill, placebo pills
do not contain hormones
Back-up contraception should be used for how long when a woman first starts on the pill?
during the first week
All of the following are true about the minipill EXCEPT that
it has more side effects and health risks than other hormonal contraceptives
The benefit of lower doses of estrogen in oral contraceptives is
fewer health risks
Which of the following statements about oral contraceptives is TRUE?
oral contraceptive contains both estrogen and progestins, a synthetic progesterone.
The most important advantage of oral contraceptives is the
high degree of effectiveness in preventing pregnancy
Oral contraceptives do NOT decrease risk for
sexually transmitted diseases
Which of the following is probably the most serious disadvantage of oral contraceptives for most women?
they provide no protection against STDs
Oral contraception is NOT recommended for women with
a history of blood clots
Which of the following actions will reduce risks associated with the use of oral contraceptives?
stopping smoking
When a woman is using an oral contraceptive she can recall the mnemonic ACHES to stay alert for preliminary danger signals. What does the “A” stand for?
abdominal pain
The typical first-year failure rate for oral contraceptive is ___ percent
9
How does risk of death from oral contraceptive use compare with the risk of death from pregnancy?
risk of death from pregnancy is much higher
The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch is worn for ___ before being replaced.
1 week
The ortho evra contraceptive skin patch can be worn on any of the following places EXCEPT the
breasts
Compliance is higher for the contraceptive skin patch than for oral contraceptives probably beacause
the patch requires weekly instead of daily action
For women who use the vaginal contraceptive ring, when should it be inserted?
anytime during the first five days of her menstrual cycle
After insertion, the vaginal contraceptive ring is left in the vagina for ____ before removal
three weeks
The NuvaRing offers pregnancy protection for how long?
one month
The perfect-use failure rate of the NuvaRing is ____ percent
0.3
The typical-use failure rate of the NuvaRing is ____ percent.
9
The Implanion implant is a(n) ___ contraceptive.
hormonal
For how long is Implanon effective?
three years
Which of the following methods is considered a “contraceptive implant”?
Implanion
Depo-Provera is
administered by injection
Which of the following is a progestin-only contraceptive, providing no estrogen?
Depo-provera
A disadvantage of depo provera is taht
after use is discontinued, infertility may result for up to twelve months
Which of the following can be used for emergency contraception?
Next Choice
Emergency hormonal contraceptives reduce pregnancy risk by almost ____ percent.
90
For emergency contraception to be most effective, the first dose must be taken within ___ hours of unprotected intercourse.
12
Which of the following statements is accurate?
Emergency contraceptives are available over the counter for women and men 17 and older
Which currently available IUD is effective for up to ten years?
Copper T-380 A
How exactly does the IUD prevent pregnancy?
It is not known with certainty exactly how IUDs prevent pregnancy
The nylon threads that are attached to the IUD and protrude through the cervix
allow for placement check
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists states that use of an IUD can greatly reduce the risk of developing which type of cancer?
endometrial
Which of the following statements about IUDs is INCORRECT?
It can be inserted by the user in privacy
Which of the following statements about IUD use is FALSE?
Bleeding and spotting may occur between periods
Which of the following statements regarding IUD users and pelvic inflammatory disease is TRUE?
Most cases of PID among IUD users can be treated with antibiotics
Which of the following statements regarding the IUD is FALSE?
The IUD is unsuitable for women with suspected pregnancy
Early IUD danger signals include all of the following EXCEPT
foul vaginal discahrge
Most condoms sold in the US are made of
latex
Which of the following lubricants can be used safely with a latex condom?
KY jelly
Which of the following is TRUE about condoms pre-lubricated with nonoxynol-9?
They are not more effective than those without nonoxynol-9
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of condoms?
they are as effective as oral contraceptions
Which of the following is a disadvantage of condom use?
they diminish sensation during sex
The perfect-use failure rate of condoms for the first year is about ___ percent.
2
The rate for breaking and slipping of latex male condoms is about ___ times for every 100 instances of use.
1 to 2
Which of the following is TRUE?
polyurethane condoms are more likely to break than latex condoms
Some substances seriously degrade latex condoms, making them ineffective. Which of the following can be used with latex condoms?
K-Y jelly
If a condom breaks, the most effective strategy to reduce the risk of pregnancy is to
take an emergency contraceptive
The female condom
can be inserted up to 8 hours before intercourse
Which of the following methods should NOT be combined with a diaphragm use?
vaginal contraceptive ring
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the female condom?
the female condom is less expensive than the male condom
The typical first-year failure rate of the female condom is about ___ percent.
20
The function of the diaphragm is to
cover the cervix
After intercourse, the diaphragm must be left in place for at least
6 hours
While in storage, diaphragms should be coated with
nothing
For how long can the diaphragm be inserted before intercourse?
six hours
A disadvantage of the diaphragm is that
it must be used with a spermicide
With perfect use of a diaphragm the failure rate is about ___ percent.
6
Which of the following is a reason that diaphragms have a relatively high typical-use failure rate?
incorrect insertion and positioning
Ortho Evra is the brand name of which type of contraception?
contraceptive skin patch
A small flexible cup that fits over the cervix and serves as a barrier to sperm is the
Cervical Cap
A cervical cap may be left in place after intercourse for up to
48 hours
An advantage of the cervical cap over the diaphragm is that it
is less associated with urinary tract infections
Which of the following is not an advantage of the contraceptive sponge?
it can be used multiple times
Which of the following is not considered a disadvantage of the sponge?
additional spermicide must be applied every six to eight hourse
Contraceptive foams, creams and jellies must be inserted
deep in the vagina near the cervix
How long before intercourse must vaginal spermicides be inserted to be effective?
Not longer than 1 hour
Vaginal spermicides start drastically losing effectiveness ___ hour(s) after insertion into the vagina.
one
Spermicides
must be applied before each act of coitus
Vaginal spermicides come in all of the following forms, EXCEPT
aerosol spray
Vaginal Contraceptive Film is a type of
spermicidal suppository
Douching is not recommended for women because it
can irritate vaginal tissue
The life span of an unfertilized egg is about __ hours
24
Which of the following is NOT considered a “natural” form of contraception?
fertility awareness
Which of the following is TRUE?
males and females over the age of 13 can buy emergency contraception
The mucus method of contraception is also called the
Billings method
The temperature method of birth control is based on the knowledge that a woman’s body temp
decreases slightly just before ovulation
Which of hte following is often characteristic of cervical secretions during ovulation?
clear, slippery mucus with elastic threads
Withdrawal has a relatively low effectiveness as a contraceptive method owing to
preejaculatory fluid
Surgical severing of the ducts that carry sperm to the seminal vesicles is called
vasectomy
Which of the following statements regarding sterilization is TRUE?
Another form of birth control should be used for three months after the procedure
Tubal sterilization or tubul ligation entails the severing or blocking of the
oviducts
Which of the following is TRUE about tubal sterilization?
serious complications from the procedure are rarte
The Essure System of female sterilization works by
causing scar tissue to form over implants to block the fallopian tubes
Surgical removal of the uterus is called
hysterectomy
As it is commonly used, the word abortion
refers to artificially induced expulsion of the fetus
____ refers to the spontaneous expulsion of an embryo or a fetus from the uterus with no casual intervention.
miscarriage
When did courts in the US begin to overturn state anti-abortion laws?
1960s
After teh Supreme Court legalized abortion,
later ruling gave the states more power to set abortion policy
By what year were there laws against abortion in practically every state in the US?
1800s
Abortion was made legal by the US Supreme Court in
1973
The supreme court case that legalized abortion was
Roe v. Wade
According to Roe v. Wade, states may regulate abortion
for the period after which the fetus becomes viable
The Supreme Court’s division of pregnancy into three parts, or trimesters
gave a woman less choice about abortion as she advanced toward full term
During the second trimester, women may choose an abortion up to the point when the fetus is deemed viable, which means the fetus
can survive outside the uterus
Most clinicians currently consider a fetus viable at ___ weeks of gestation.
24
The percentage of all pregnancies in the US that end with an abortion is closest to
25 percent
What did Roe v. Wade establish as the key criterion for establishing the point beyond which a woman’s ability to choose abortion becomes markedly restricted?
viability of the fetus
What percentage of pregnancies in the US are unintended?
50
Since the mid-1970s, the number of women who choose to place a child up for adoption
has dropped
The attitude of most adult Americans toward abortion is
that it should be allowed only in cases of rape
Approximately what percentage of the population approves of legal abortions under ANY circumstance?
25 percent
Those whol hold the pro-life position believe that the fertilized egg
should have the same rights as any human from the point of conception
Which of the following is a personal consideration for a woman considering abortion?
all of these
Research indicates that women who have had abortions
have neither higher or lower frequency of psychiatric diagnoses than those who have not
Most induced abortions occur __ weeks of gestation.
at 9-12
At current rates, about ___ percent of American women will have had an abortion by age 45
33
The belief that the decision to end or continue a pregnancy is a personal matter reflects which view?
pro-choice
Those who oppose abortion because they believe all life begins at conception reflect which view?
pro-life
Which of the following is a pro-life view?
all abortion should be illegal
Based on national research, which of hte following is NOT characteristic of most American women who have abortions?
first time pregnant
When deciding to follow through with an unwanted pregnancy and give the baby up for adoption, the mother
should see a counselor to make her choice
In which type of adoption do the birth parents and adoptive parents never meet each other?
private
In which type of adoption do the birth parents and adoptive parents know something about one another and may meet?
open
The majority of women in the US who have abortions
are low income
Suction curretage abortions make up what percentage of all abortions?
85 percent
Another name for suction curettage is
dilation and curretage
Suction curettage is the most common method of abortion during
the first trimester
Suction curettage is used in about what percentage of all abortions performed in the US?
85 percent
An abortion option for women in the earliest stages of pregnancy is
suction curettage
The most common method of abortion during the 13th to 24th weeks of pregnancy is
dilation and evacuation
Which of hte following statements about dilation and evacuation is TRUE?
It requires cervical dilation overnight before the procdure is completed
Medical abortion is generally used
within 49 days of the last menstrual period
A medical abortion uses what to induce the abortion?
combination of drugs
Which of the following does NOT reduce the risk of possible complications from an abortion?
general anesthesia
Cramping and bleeding after an abortion
are expected part of the process
Which of the following is a post-abortion danger sign?
abdominal tenderness
Which of the following most accurately characterizes women’s psychological reactions to having an abortion?
psychological reactions depend on a woman’s psychological makeup
In what way is alcohol similar to other drugs?
Its physiological effects can cause long-term damage
A standard drink contains about
0.6 ounces of alcohol
Beer usually contains what percentage of alcohol?
3-6 percent
The process of fermentation is utilized in making
wine
The approximate concentration of alcohol in a hard liquor such as vodka or gin is
35-50 percent
Wines with the highest concentration of alcohol are called
fortified
Which of the following beverages has the highest concentration of alcohol?
sherry
The proof value of an alcoholic beverage is
two times the percentage of alcohol in the beverage
A 20 proof beverage is ___ percent alcohol.
10
Alcohol is metabolized
at a varied rate depending on individual characteristscs
The carbonation in an alcoholic beverage like champagne
speeds up the absorption rate of alcohol, thereby increasing the degree of impairment
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between food and alcohol consumption?
eating slows alcohol absorption
Which of the following does NOT influence how long it takes for alcohol to be absorbed in the stomach?
time of day that alcohol is consumed
The main site of alcohol metabolism is in the
liver
What percentage of ingested alcohol is NOT metabolized in the liver but is excreted unchanged?
2-10 percent
Which of the following statements about alcohol is TRUE?
some alcohol is excreted by the lungs, which is the basis of breath analyses for alcohol levels
The amount of alcohol in the blood, which is used as a measure of intoxication, is called
blood alcohol concentration
One reason that females usually become intoxicated more quickly than males is that
the stomach enzyme that metabolizes alcohol is less active in women than in men
One reason that women have higher BACs than men after ingesting the same amount of alcohol is that women have
a higher percentage of body fat
A man who weighs 150 pounds will metabolize one drink (one beer or glass of wine) in
2 hours
At what blood alcohol concentration are you likely to first feel “relaxed”?
less than 0.05 percent
What is the estimated time required to metabolize a BAC of .05 percent?
4-6 hours
What would be the estimated blood alcohol concentration for a person who is experiencing emotional instability and exaggerated feelings and behavior?
0.05-0.10 percent
How many house would be required to metabolize a blood alcohol concentration of 0.10-0.15 percent?
6 to 10 hours
At what blood alcohol concentration are you likely to experience unsteadiness in walking and standing?
0.05-0.10
At what blood alcohol concentration is pain perception significantly impaired?
.05-.1
At what blood alcohol concentration could a person become unconscious?
0.30-0.35 percent
Alcohol is classified as a(n)
depressant
Initial effects of low concentrations of alcohol include all of the following EXCEPT
sleepiness
Which of the following effects of alcohol use are likely to occur at the lower levels of BAC?
light-headedness
At high blood alcohol concentrations, people are LEAST likely to feel
jovial
A high blood alcohol concentration is most likely to increase
irritability
Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of an intoxicated person?
improved problem-solving skills
All of the following are symptoms of a hangover EXCEPT
cough
Which of the following can cause death by alcohol poisoning?
central nervous system and respiratory depression
Which of the following is an appropriate way to deal with an alcohol emergency?
If unconscious, place the person on his side with his knees up
In a 2010 survey, what percentage of US adult drivers 18-20 admitted to during while under the influence of alcohol?
15 percent
Many states have zero-tolerance laws, in which drivers under age 21
will have their driver’s license suspended after drinking any alcohol
A person with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.14 percent will be ___ times more likely to be involved in a fatal crash than a sober driver.
40
The legal BAC limit in all 50 US states and the District of Columbia is
0.08 percent
Which of the following is a good strategy for protecting yourself if you suspect another driver is drunk?
maintain a safe distance and stay alert
Continued overuse of alcohol commonly causes scarring in the
liver
A disease of the liver caused by excessive and chronic drinking is
cirrhosis
Which of the following is associated with cirrhosis?
replacement of liver cells with scar tissue
Which of the following statements about alcohol-related pancreatitis is TRUE?
Alcoholic pancreatitis occurs in those who engage in binge rinking
Some alcoholics show a weakening of the heart muscle, called
cardiac myopathy
Which of the following are effects of chronic alcohol abuse on the brain?
shrinkage of both grey and white matter
Approximately what percentage of alcoholics in the US experience dementia, memory loss and impaired reasoning?
50 percent
Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by
impaired mental functioning
The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome are
both physical and mental impairments
Cognitive and behavioral problems for infants born to mothers who drink during pregnancy that is more common than fetal alcohol syndrome is
alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder
Alcohol consumption by the mother can pose risks for the fetus
throughout the pregnancy
Which of the following is the most accurate discription of the safe limit of alcohol consumption during pregnancy?
no alcohol consumed during pregnancy
Early in a pregnancy, heavy drinking by the mother may cause
spontaneous abortion or miscarriage
Among people under age 35,
light drinkers have lower mortality rates than both nondrinkers and heavy drinkers
Cardiovascular benefits from moderate alcohol consumption may be due to
increased levels of HDL cholesterol
Alcohol may positive affect the cardiovascular system by
reducing the risk of clot formation
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning alcohol use?
health benefits from alcohol are negated by heavy use
Which of the following would probably NOT be a sign of impending alcohol abuse?
drinking moderate amounts with most evening meals
Binge drinking is defined as drinking ___ drinks or more in about two hours, at least once within 30 days
5
Alcohol dependence is also known as
alcoholism
Among Americans under 21, most drinking
is in the form of binging
Among college students, frequent binge drinkers are __ times more likely to engage in unplanned sexual activity, drive after drinking, or get injured than non-binge drinkers.
3 to 7
Negative consequences associated with binge drinking include
all of the above choices
What percentage of college binge drinkers identify themselves as problem drinkers?
fewer than 1 percent
Which of the following is NOT a common pattern of alcohol consumption associated with alcohol dependence?
long periods of sobriety interspersed with binges
Requiring more of a substance to get the same desired effect is known as
tolerance
Lowered sensitivity to a drug such that a given dose no longer produces the usual effect is called
tolerance
The unpleasant physical and mental state experienced when abstaining from alcohol after heavy use is known as
withdrawal
Which of the following has a mortality rate as high as 15 percent?
delirium tremens
Binge drinking among college students is difficult to address because
it is so widespread
Alcoholics who stop drinking on their own often do so because of
an alcohol-related crisis
Which of the following statements about alcohol treatment is TRUE?
Different alcohol treatment strategies work for different people
An important component of treating alcoholism is
identifying which treatment strategy will be most effective
Which of the following statements about naltrexone is TRUE?
it decreases the pleasant effects of alcohol without making the person ill
The prolonged use of chemical substitutes in the treatment of alcoholism could
lead to dependence on the substitute drug
Eating before and while drinking
slows the rate of alcoholic absorption
A responsible party hose will
make all of the above choices
Which of the following statements is MOST characteristic of alcoholism among white American men?
A common pattern is a man becoming alcohollic in his early forties after beginning to drink excessively in his twenties
Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of alcoholism in women as compared to in men?
women tend to become alcoholics later in life
Which of the following statements regarding male and female use of alcohol is TRUE?
women may have a higher biological risk than men
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
African Americans have a higher rate of alcohol-related problems than the general population
Which of the following groups has a lower-than-average rate of alcohol-abuse problems?
Asian Americans
Which of the following groups has a rate of alcoholism twice the national average?
American Indians
What is the addictive drug in tobacco?
nicotine
The predominant psychoactive drug in tobacco is
nicotine
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
nicotine is considered a powerful depressant
The primary reason people continue to use tobacco despite the health risks is because
they are addicted to nicotine
On average, a regular user of tobacco can go how long between dosages of nicotine?
no more than 40 minutes
Lynette has not had a cigarette for over an hour. Which of the following is she likely to experience?
all of these choices are correct
People who quit smoking suddenly may have all of the following symptoms EXCEPT
increased attentiveness
Most of the symptoms of physical dependence on smoking pass in
2 to 3 days
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tobacco use?
smokeless tobacco is highly addictive
The FDA has warned people to not use e-cigarettes because
analysis shows that they contain carcinogens
The average age for smokers and smokeless tobacco users to start is about
15
Marketers of e-cigarettes say that the devices deliver only
nicotine
Which of the following statements about e-cigarettes is FALSE?
The FDA has reported that e-cigarettes are safe to sue
Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) is commonly called
secondhand smoke
Which of the following areas of the body will be adversely affected by tobacco?
all of these areas will be adversely affected by tobacco
When particles of tobacco smoke condense, they form a brown sticky mass called
tar
A substance that directly causes cancer is called a(n)
carcinogen
A component of tobacco smoke that seriously limits the body’s ability to use oxygen is
carbon monoxide
Smokers who switch to low-tar or low-nicotine cigarettes will probably NOT reduce the risk of smoking because
they are likely to smoke more cigarettes to maintain nicotine levels
Which of the following is an effect of nicotine?
increased heart rate
Smoking affects hunger by
depressing hunger contractions
Which of the following is the most widespread cause of death among smokers?
coronary heart disease
Heart disease caused by the deposit of fatty substances on the walls of arteries is called
atherosclerosis
A heart attack is also called
a myocardial infraction
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding coronary heart disease and smoking?
smokers have a death rate from CHD that is 25 percent higher than nonsmokers
Which of the following cardiovascular disease is linked to cigarette smoking?
all of these choices are correct
What is the leading cause of cancer death in women?
lung cancer
After a smoker quits smoking, approximately how long does it take before the risk of lung cancer drops to half that of a continuing smoker?
10 years
Which of the following cancers is linked with smoking?
all of these cancers are linked with amoking
Loss of lung tissue elasticity is characteristic of
emphysema
Respiratory cilia
signal the body that respiratory poisons are present
Which of the following health concerns is associated with smoking?
all of these choices are correct
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A male who begins smoking before the age of 15 continues to smoke is only half as likely to live to age 75 as a male who never smokes
Which of the following is NOT a major form of spit tobacco?
cloves
Which of the following statements is TRUE about spit tobacco?
Holding an average-size dip in the mouth for 30 minutes delivers about the same amount of nicotine as two or three cigarettes
White or red patches that appear in the mouth as a result of using spit tobacco are called
leukoplakia
Health consequences related to the use of spit tobacco are likely to include all of the following EXCEPT
lung cancer
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
cigar smoke contains fewer toxins and carcinogens than smoke from cigarettes
Clove cigarettes
contain more tar, nicotine and carbon monoxide than conventional cigarettes
Small cigarettes imported from India contain species of tobacco different from those used by US cigarette manufacturers called
bidis
Smoke exhale by a smoker is referred to as __ amoke
mainstream
Smoke emitted from the burning end of a cigarette, cigar or pipe is referred to as ___ smoke
sidestream
Which of the following is an effect of environmental tobacco smoke?
all of these choices
Which of the following lingers in the bloodstream for five hours after exposure to environmental tobacco smoke?
carbon monoxide
Which of the following is TRUE?
infants exposed to environental tobacco smoke are more likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)?
children are commonly affected by ETS
The primary effects of environmental tobacco smoke on children are
related to teh respiratory system
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
research suggests there is little to no risk to nonsmokers exposed to environmental tobacco smoke
TO increase the change for success when attempting to quit smoking, you should
enlist support
Lynette has quit smoking. She can expect all of the following changes to occur EXCEPT
a lack of improvement in circulation
Which one of the following nicotine replacement therapies is available only be prescription?
none of these
Which of the following is NOT an essential nutrient?
enzymes
Nutrition is best described as the
science of food
Which of the following describes the process by which the body breaks down and absorbs food?
digestion
In what part of the body does digestion begin?
mouth
Calorie is a commonly used name for
kilocalorie
Which of the following essential nutrients supplies energy?
proteins
Fat provides ___ calories per gram.
9
Protein provides ___ calories per gram.
4
Carbohydrates provide ___ calories per gram.
4
Alcohol provides __ calories per gram.
7
Amino acids are components of
proteins
The building blocks of proteins are called
amino acids
Of the 20 common amino acids, how many are termed “essential”?
9
Which of the following describes protein sources that provide adequate amounts of all the amino acids not manufactured in the body?
complete
Meats, fish, poultry and eggs are sources of ___ protein.
complete
Most plant-based foods supply ___ proteins.
incomplete
Which of the following is a source of incomplete protein?
beans
Martha is a vegetarian and wants to eat a source of complete protein. Which of the following combinations should she choose?
beans and peanut butter
The recommended daily intake of protein is ___ percent of total daily calories.
10-35
If you consume more protein than your body needs, the extra energy from the protein is
stored as fat
Fats are also called
lipids
Which of the following is NOT a function of fats?
contributing to the manufacture of hormones
The major source of fuel for the body during rest and light activity is
fats
Hydrogenation
turns liquid oils into solid or semi-solid fats
Most of the fasts in food are in the form of
triglycerides
Linoleic and alpha-linoleic fatty acids, usually derived from plants, are examples of __ fats.
polyunsaturated
Saturated fats are primarily found in ___ food sources and are __ at room temp.
animal; solid
Which of the following is NOT a leading source of saturated fat in the American diet?
poultry
Which of the following oils is not a major source of monounsaturated fatty acids?
peanut
Which of the following best describes hydrogenated vegetable oils?
they tend to be higher in saturated fat
Which of the following is a byproduct of hydrogenation?
trans fatty acids
TO control blood cholesterol levels, the most important action to take is limiting the amount of ___ fat(s) in your diet.
saturated and trans
Which of the following statements best describes trans fatty acids?
they increase one’s risk of developing heart disease
In order to determine the presence of trans fat in a given product, consumers should check the label for
partially hydrogenated oils
A good source of omega-3 fatty acids is
salmon
Which of the following plant sources does NOT contain omega-3 fatty acids
coconut
Which of the following best describes omega-6 fatty acids?
they are a form of polyunsaturated fat
When reducing fat intake, the emphasis should be placed on lowering intake of
trans fatty acids
Which of the following is an effect of consuming omega-3 fatty acids?
inhibition of abnormal heart rhythms
The major source of fuel for the nervous system, brain, and red blood cells is
carbohydrates
Which of the following foods is a complex carbohydrate?
potato
Which of the following best describes simple carbohydrates?
they are found naturally in fruits and milk
Which of the following are richest in complex carbohydrates?
grains and legumes
Which of the following is NOT removed during the processing whole grains?
endosperm
The liver and muscles store carbohydrates in the form of
glycogen
According to the FOod and Nutrition Board, which of the following distributions of total daily calories is most appropriate?
65 percent carb, 25 percent fat, 10 percent protein
Refined carbohydrates
tend to be much lower in fiber than unrefined carbohydrates
The refinement of whole grains transforms whole-wheat flour into
white flour
Consumption of whole grains has been linked to
reduced risk of certain forms of cancer
The measure of how a particular food affects blood glucose levels is the ___ index.
glycemic
Nondigestible carbohydrates and lignin that are intact in plants are referred to as
dietary fiber
Fiber can help
prevent constipation by increasing fecal bulk
Which of the following is NOT a good source of fiber?
hamburger
Which of the following is often added to cereals or used in fiber supplements and laxatives to improve intestinal health?
psyllium
The recommended daily amount of fiber for men is __ grams.
38
The recommended daily intake of fiber for women is __ grams.
25
The primary function of vitamins is to
regulate various chemical reactions wihtin cells
Which of the following vitamins is NOT fat soluble?
vitamin B
Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
vitamin C
Which of the following statements best describes the role of vitamins in the body?
they are important in the maintenance of the immune system
Which of the following vitamins is a key antioxidant?
vitamin E
Which of the following vitamins are produced by the body?
vitamins D and K
The vitamin deficiency disease caused by lack of vitamin C is
scurvy
Low intake of which of the following vitamins has been linked to increased risk of heart disease?
folate
High dosages of vitamin A are associated with increased risk of
night blindness
The best source of vitamin C is a(n)
orange
Which of the following enhances the absorption of iron?
vitamin C
Minerals
help regulate body function
Examples of minerals in the body needs more than 100 milligrams of each day include
calcium, potassium, and magnesium
Examples of trace minerals include
fluoride, copper and zinc
A mineral commonly lacking in American diets is
iron
A food rich in calcium is
green leafy vegetables
Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of
calcium
One practice that would help with building strong bones is to
engage in weight-bearing aerobic activities
Which of the following is NOT a strategy to prevent osteoporosis?
taking more vitamin A (as retinol)
Human body weight is composed of approximately __ percent water.
50-60
Which of the following best describes the liquids that count toward total daily fluid intake?
all fluids
Antioxidants
can help protect the body from damaging molecules
Which of the following statements best describes free radicals?
they are produced by the body as a normal part of metabolism
Phytochemicals
may help prevent chronic diseases
Which of the following is a cruciferous vegetable?
broccoli
The Dietary Reference Intakes
are designed to prevent nutritional deficiencies and chronic diseases
Which of the following best describes the purpose of MyPlate?
to show people how to use the five food groups
Experts say that two of the most important factors in a healthy diet are eating the “right” kinds of fats and the “right” kinds of
carbohydrates
Which of the following statements best describes the Dietary Guidelines for Americans
they are supported by extensive medical evidence
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans encourage eating more of which of the following?
whole grains
Which of the following is a general dietary guideline for Americans?
choose a diet with a variety of fruits and vegetables
Which of the following types of foods is a most important for a healthy diet?
nutrient-dense
Sedentary people should decrease their consumption of
energy-dense carbohydrates
Americans most often consume salt by eating
processed and prepared foods
which of the following is NOT a condiment that is high in sodium?
lemon juice
Which of the following is not a food group on USDA’s MyPlate?
oils
Which of the following describes the philosophy behind MyPlate?
showing how to build a healthy meal
For a person consuming a 2000 calorie diet, MyPlate recommends consuming three servings of __ each day.
dairy
One ounce of protein is equivalent to the size of a
large egg
About how many calories should sedentary women ages 14-18 consume each day?
1800
Which of the following describes the MyPlate category of calories from solid fats and sugars?
discretionary
Which of the following describes lacto-ovo-vegetarians?
They do not eat fish but eat eggs and dairy products
Vegetarians who eat dairy products but not eggs are called
vegans
Vegetarians who include milk and cheese products and small amounts of fish and poultry in their diets are called
semivegetarians
Women who are capable of getting pregnant should eat foods fortified with
folic acid
Unlike most population groups, endurance athletes may benefit from consuming additional
carbohydrate
Which of the following is a good eating strategy for college students?
abide by the portion sizes that are served to you
Which of the following is a good reason for taking a dietary supplement?
you may become pregnant
Which of the following best describes a food that claims to be “light”?
it has 50 percent less fat than a similar product
Which of the following is a criterion for USDA organic certification?
feeding animals certified organic feed
Which of the following is a good tip for choosing a dietary supplement?
Avoid products that do not give daily values for all ingredients
A guideline for food safety is to
cook stuffing separately from poultry
IF the air temp is 75 degrees F cooked or refrigerated foods should be be left at room tempt for more than __ hours.
two
Shelley is pregnant and has concerns about possible mercury contamination in the fish she eats. According to the FDA and EPA guidelines, which of the following should she avoid completely?
swordfish
Food irradiation
extends the shelf life of a food
In the US, genetically modified foods
can appear in the food supply through contamination during processing

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